2025 NURS 6550 FINAL EXAM 3 VERSIONS NURS 6550 MIDTERM EXAM 100 CORRECT Q A IN EACH

NURS 6550 FINAL EXAM (3 VERSIONS) & NURS 6550 MIDTERM EXAM (100 CORRECT Q & A IN EACH VERSION, TOTAL: 400 Q & A) 2025

NURS 6550 FINAL EXAM (3 VERSIONS) & NURS 6550 MIDTERM EXAM (100 CORRECT Q & A IN EACH VERSION, TOTAL: 400 Q & A) NURS 6550 Final Exam / NURS6550 Final Exam (Latest): Walden University Walden University NURS 6550 Final Exam / Walden University NURS6550 Final Exam QUESTION 1 1. Mr. Jeffers was admitted 2 days ago for a carotid endarterectomy. A Foley catheter was inserted intraoperatively and remains in place. His urine output has declined markedly despite continued IV fluid infusion. Today his morning labs reveal a BUN of 19 mg/dL and a creatinine of 2 mg/dL. A leading differential includes: A. Foley lodged in the urethra causing post-renal  failure B. Decreased renal perfusion causing prerenal  failure C. Age-related decreased eGFR causing prerenal  failure D. Post-surgical rhabdomyolysis causing intrarenal  failure QUESTION 2 1. Janet is admitted with symptomatic tachycardia. Her pulse is 160 b.p.m. and she is weak, diaphoretic, and anxious. Physical examination reveals a 5’4” 107 lb black female who is awake, alert, and oriented, anxious, with moist skin and racing pulse. Her blood pressure is 140/100 mm Hg. Temperature and respiratory rate are within normal limits. The patient admits to having a “thyroid condition” but she never followed up on it when she was advised to see an endocrinologist. The AGACNP anticipates a diagnosis of: A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis B. Cushing’s syndrome C. Grave’s disease D. Addison’s disease QUESTION 3 1. Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE) is a multiorgansystem autoimmune disorder that can prevent with a wide variety of manifestations. Which clinical triad should prompt an evaluation for SLE? A. Fever, normal white count, elevated sedimentation  rate B. Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, low blood pressure C. Leukocytosis, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia D. Joint pain, rash, fever QUESTION 4 1. A patient presents with profound vertigo of acute onset yesterday. She can barely turn her head without becoming very vertiginous; she is nauseous and just doesn’t want to move. This morning when she tried to get out of bed she felt like she was pushed back down. The vertigo is reproducible with cervical rotation. The patient denies any hearing loss or tinnitus, she has no fever or other symptoms. The AGACNP knows that the most helpful intervention will probably be: A. Meclizine B. Diazepam C. Bed rest D. Epley’s maneuvers QUESTION 5 1. Mrs. Mireya is an 85-year-old female who is admitted for evaluation of acute mental status change from the long term care facility. She is normally ambulatory and participates in lots of facility activities. Today a nursing assistant found her in her room, appearing confused and disconnected from her environment. When she tried to get up she fell down. Her vital signs are stable excepting a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that the most likely cause of her symptoms is: A. Osteoarthritis B. Drug or alcohol toxicity C. Hypotension D. Urosepsis QUESTION 6 1. A patient with SIADH would be expected to demonstrate which pattern of laboratory abnormalities? A. Serum Na+ 119 mEq/L, serum osmolality 240 mEq/L,  urine Na+ of 28 mEq/L, urine osmolality of 900 mOsm/kg B. Serum Na+ 152 mEq/L, serum osmolality 315 mEq/L,  urine Na+ of 5 mEq/L, urine osmolality of 300 mOsm/kg C. Serum Na+ 121 mEq/L, serum osmolality 290 mEq/L,  urine Na+ of 7 mEq/L, urine osmolality of 850 mOsm/kg D. Serum Na+ 158 mEq/L, serum osmolality 251 mEq/L,  urine Na+ of 20 mEq/L, urine osmolality of 420 mOsm/kg QUESTION 7 1. Sean is a 29-year-old male who presents to the emergency department for evaluation and treatment of foreign body in the eye. Ophthalmic anesthesia is achieved and removal is attempted unsuccessfully with a moist cotton tipped swab. A wet fluorescein stain is applied to the lower eyelid, and a corneal abrasion ruled out but the AGACNP notes a positive Seidel sign. This indicates: A. Penetration of the cornea with resultant aqueous  leak B. A rust ring remnant due to metal foreign body C. An elevated intraocular pressure D. Paradoxical pupil dilation in response to light QUESTION 8 1. Mrs. Lowen is an 82-year-old female who comes to the emergency department for evaluation of a fever of 102.9° F. She complains of a headache in the right side of her temple and some right-sided jaw pain. A urinalysis, chest radiograph, complete blood count (CBC) and 12-lead ECG are all non-contributory. A comprehensive metabolic panel is significant only for a slightly elevated BUN and creatinine. The AGACNP appreciates distinct right temple tenderness to percussion. Which laboratory test is necessary to support the suspected diagnosis? A. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate B. A white blood cell differential C. Two sets of blood cultures D. Echocardiography QUESTION 9 1. Ms. Schiebel, a 31-year-old female who is brought to the emergency department by police after being arrested for disruptive behavior in a public establishment. The differential diagnosis includes drug and alcohol ingestion/toxicity, central nervous system disease, severe trauma, and psychotic illness; ultimately the alcohol and toxicology screen as well as head imaging are negative. When considering psychotic illness, the AGACP knows that this is a physiologic imbalance that typically involves an excess of: A. Serotonin B. Norepinephrine C. Acetylcholine D. Dopamine QUESTION 10 1. Mr. Lincoln is a 55-year-old male who was admitted for management of sepsis secondary to pneumonia. He has declined rapidly, and today chest radiography demonstrates a diffuse, bilateral “white-out” appearance. His paO2 is 55 mm Hg. In order to increase his oxygenation the AGACNP knows that which of the following interventions is indicated? A. Increased  FiO2 B. Increased respiratory rate C. Increased  tidal volume D. Increased PEEP QUESTION 11 1. A 29-year-old female patient presents with a complaint of palpitations. Physical examination reveals an essentially healthy female with no significant medical history and no maintenance medications; the only thing she can report is that she had a head cold a week or so ago. The vital signs include a blood pressure of 139/90 mm Hg, pulse of 105 b.p.m, respiratory rate of 16 b.p.m. and a temperature of 98.6° F. The only abnormal finding on physical examination is diffuse anterior neck tenderness with thyroid palpation. The AGACNP considers which medication for symptom control? A. Ibuprofen B. Pseudoephedrine C. Propranolol D. Methimazole QUESTION 12 1. Jennifer is an 18-year-old homeless female who was found unresponsive. She was admitted to the hospital for management of severe bleeding after a spontaneous abortion escalated to a uterine hemorrhage. An underlying infection and dehydration were corrected and nutritional supplements were started. Her volume status is stable, morning labs were all within normal limits and she is to be discharged today. When the AGACNP enters the room to prepare the patient for discharge, she finds her agitated, pale, and diaphoretic with vital signs to include a pulse of 105 bpm, respirations of 24 bpm, blood pressure of 110/76 mm Hg and a temperature is 97.9° F. The most appropriate action would be to: A. Order a CBC to assess for recurrent bleeding B. Request and abdominal CT to assess for bleeding C. Evaluate the patient for anxiety/panic attack D. Prescribe alprazolam 1 mg now QUESTION 13 1. Physical examination findings in a patient with pneumothorax is likely to reveal: A. Increased tactile fremitus B. Low grade temperature C. Hyperresonance to percussion D. Egophany QUESTION 14 1. Mr. Parker brings his 73-year-old wife to a clinic appointment because he is worried about her. She has a long history of hypertension and dyslipidemia, but he says she has taken medication for years and everything has been OK. His concern today is that for a long time she has been very forgetful, and he has tried to help her by keeping a strict routine around the house. Over the past few months, she just seems more and more forgetful, does not seem interested in doing anything, and now seems to be forgetting how to do simple everyday tasks. Yesterday she could not figure out which dollar bills to use at the store to pay the cashier. The AGACNP knows Mrs. Parker should first be screened for: A. Depression B. A brain tumor C. Hypothyroidism D. Adrenal dysfunction QUESTION 15 1. M.R. is a 40-year-old female who has a known history of peptic ulcer disease. She has been admitted through the emergency room with a diagnosis of GI bleeding—she is vomiting dark blood and had a nasogastric tube placed. When attached to low intermittent suction it initially drained 400 cc of dark brown/black drainage, but now it is starting to drain lighter red colored blood. The AGACNP knows that immediate priorities of care include: A. Ensuring hemodynamic stability B. Beginning a parenteral proton pump inhibitor C. Beginning gastric lavage D. Ordering a gastrointestinal consult QUESTION 16 1. A patient with sharp, stabbing chest pain directly over the precordium has a 12-lead ECG that demonstrates concave ST-T wave elevations in leads II, III, avR, avL, avF, and all six precordial leads. The AGACNP expects which physical finding? A. A grade IV/VI systolic murmur with radiation to  the axilla B. A split S2 that increases with inspiration C. A pericardial friction rub D. An S4 heart sound QUESTION 17 1. J.Q. is a 45-year-old male who had gastric bypass surgery 18 months ago. A CBC reveals a macrocytic anemia with aHgb of 9.8 g/dL, HCT of 30%, MCV of 115 and RDW of 19%. The AGACNP suspects which type of anemia? A. Iron deficiency B. Sickle cell anemia C. Pernicious anemia D. Anemia of chronic disease QUESTION 18 1. Megan K. is a 21-year-old female who presents complaining of irritated eyes. She says this happens a couple of times a year and this time it is really a problem. Both eyes are itchy and red and she has a lot of stringy discharge, especially at the end of the day. Her visual acuity is 20/25 OS, OD, and OU with her glasses on. Physical exam reveals injected conjunctiva bilaterally but there is no photophobia. Pupils are equal, round, briskly reactive, and accommodate. The AGACNP knows that immediate treatment should include ophthalmic application of: A. Steroids B. Antihistamine C. Antibiotic D. Cycloplegic QUESTION 19 1. Ellen is a 61-year-old female who presents with a chief complaint of neck pain. The history of present illness reveals that Ellen felt as though a bug bit her behind the neck a few days ago. A day or two later it started to hurt, and when she began to pick at it she felt drainage come out. She is here now for evaluation. Physical exam reveals an 8 cm x 8 cm draining abscess in the right post auricular region with posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Ellen has a temperature today of 101.9° F. The AGACNP knows that in addition to incision and drainage of the abscess, effective management must include: A. Systemic antibiotics B. Tetanus immune globulin C. Tetanus toxoid D. Antipyretics QUESTION 20 1. A 13-year-old male presents with a chief complaint of ear drainage. The patient and his mother both indicate that the patient has not had any pain or any systemic complaints, but the pus-like discharge from the ear is very persistent. According to Mom they went to a retail clinic two weeks ago and the patient was prescribed both oral antibiotics and ear drops, but it didn’t help. Physical exam of the ear reveals a painless pinna; otoscope exam reveals only a large amount of mucopurulent drainage—the tympanic membrane could not be visualized. The AGACNP knows the diagnosis is most likely: A. Acute otitis media B. Acute otitis externa C. Cholesteatoma D. Otitis media with effusion QUESTION 21 1. A 71-year-old male patient with lung cancer is admitted for treatment of sepsis related to his chemotherapy-induced immunosuppression. He seems to be improving from an infectious perspective, but during today’s assessment the AGACNP appreciates coarse rales in the lung fields, a blood pressure of 140-100 mm Hg, a bounding pulse, and trace pretibial edema. The urine output via Foley catheter has only been 100 mL in the last 8 hours. Suspicious for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), the AGACNP orders a basic metabolic panel anticipating which of the following abnormalities? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypochloremia QUESTION 22 1. A crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur best appreciated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border with radiation to the carotid artery is most likely an indicator of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Aortic regurgitation C. Tricuspid stenosis D. Tricuspid regurgitation QUESTION 23 1. The AGACNP knows that diagnostic findings consistent with rheumatoid arthritis include: A. Soft tissue swelling of the metacarpals B. Radiographic joint space narrowing C. Heberden’s nodes D. Subungal hemorrhages QUESTION 24 1. C.T. is a 39-year-old female who presents for evaluation of what she thinks is her “rosacea acting up.” She has a history of acne rosacea and has medicated on and off for years with tetracycline and topical metronidazole. Today however she presents with a pronounced red/purple area on her left cheek extending to the nasal border. It is very warm to the touch. The borders of the affected area are very well defined and raised. C.T. also has a temperature of 100.7° F and a generalized headache. The AGACNP appreciates tender submandibular and cervical lymphadenopathy. The likely diagnosis is: A. Complex rosacea B. Cellulitis C. Erysipelas D. Allergic reaction QUESTION 25 1. Mr. Lopez is a 51-year-old male patient who is being treated for T2DM. His HgbA1c is 15.6% and initial management will include aggressive attempts for weight reduction as his body mass index (BMI) is 45. He says he is unable to participate in any meaningful exercise because he very often has back pain; he has had it for years and has tried all sort of over the counter medicines with little relief. He describes it as a profound ache that occurs across the lower part of his back bilaterally; it does not travel down either leg. The physical inspection is normal, but he has significant paraspinal tenderness to palpation bilaterally. He cannot identify any injury or accident that preceded the pain. The history and physical exam is noncontributory. The AGACP knows that the likely diagnosis is: A. Lumbar radiculopathy B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Lumbar sacral strain D. Degenerative disk disease QUESTION 26 1. A patient presents with acute onset of vesicular lesions on her vulva. They are surrounded by areas of redness and they hurt. The patient says that she has even more of them now then she did when she woke up this morning. There is also inguinal lymphadenopathy. The AGACNP is suspicious for: A. Human papilloma virus B. Primary syphilis C. Gonorrhea D. Herpes simplex virus QUESTION 27 1. Classic radiographic features of osteoarthritis include: A. Soft tissue swelling B. Joint deformity C. Bone mineral loss D. Joint space narrowing QUESTION 28 1. Mrs. Sandoval is a 72-year-old female who presents with a chief complaint of transient verbal confusion. She was speaking with her friend on the phone this morning when she suddenly couldn’t get words out. Her friend went over to her home and found Mrs. Sandoval awake, alert, and oriented, responding appropriately with non-verbal gestures, but she could not properly articulate her thoughts. By the time she arrived at the office this had passed, although during the examination she appeared to have infrequent difficulty finding a single word. The patient denies any contributory medical history, but a 12-lead ECG in the office reveals atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response of 91 b.p.m. The blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg; remaining vital signs are normal. The AGACNP knows that management should include: A. Antiplatelet therapy B. Anticoagulation C. Blood pressure control D. Speech therapy QUESTION 29 1. C.L. is a 48-year-old female who presents complaining of activity intolerance. She is usually very active and fit^. She jogs regularly and typically does 4-5 miles a day. About a week ago she became so tired she had to stop, and lately she has become aware of becoming easily fatigued while going up and down stairs. She admits that she thinks she is beginning menopause—she is having a lot of bleeding with her periods, and her periods seem to be more frequent. A complete blood count (CBC) reveals the following results: Hgb 10.1 g/dL Hct 30% MCV 75 fL RDW 21% The AGACNP orders which of the following laboratory test to confirm the suspected diagnosis? A. Vitamin B12 B. Folate C. Ferritin D. Hemoglobin electrophoresis QUESTION 30 1. Kevin H. is a 61-year-old male who presents for treatment of profound anxiety. He has been treated on and off for years—most recently he was taking escitalopram 20 mg p.o. daily, and although he does admit to some improvement, he still cannot function appropriately thoughout the day. He has been counseled about poor work performance and is concerned about losing his job, but he is just so worried all of the time he cannot concentrate on work. The AGACNP knows that the most appropriate action is to: A. Increase the dose of escitalopram to 40 mg daily B. Refer Kevin for a psychiatric consultation C. Stop escitalopram and begin venlafaxine D. Discuss therapeutic expectations with Kevin QUESTION 31 1. When examining a patient with a skin presentation suggestive of necrotizing fasciitis, the AGACNP knows that the most important and sensitive diagnostic test is: A. A complete blood count B. Plain film radiographs C. The finger test D. CT scan QUESTION 32 1. While evaluating a patient with abdominal pain, the AGACP knows that when the pain is described as coming in waves or cycles, with periods of relief in between, the cause likely centers around: A. Peristalsis of bowel B. Disorders of pelvic organs C. Organ inflammation D. Hyperacidity QUESTION 33 1. Which of the following findings is not typically associated with testicular torsion? A. Acute pain B. Edema C. High riding testis D. Dysuria QUESTION 34 1. 152: When completing this exam, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Yes No QUESTION 35 1. While preparing to perform an incision and drainage on a 7 cm fluctuant abscess on a patients posterior thorax, the AGACNP knows that the most important part of the procedure is: A. Immediate coverage with antistaphylococcal  antibiotics B. Maintaining sterility with topical betadine and  drapes C. Breaking up loculations and aggressive irrigation D. Proper injection of local anesthetic QUESTION 36 1. A patient is being evaluated with significant nausea, fatigue, and a general sense of feeling unwell; mild jaundice is noted on physical examination. Transaminases are markedly elevated and a hepatitis screening is done. Results are as follows: + HbsAb + anti-HAV IgM – anti-HCV The correct interpretation of these findings is: A. The patient has acute hepatitis A B. The patient has acute hepatitis B C. The patient has chronic hepatitis B D. The patient has acute hepatitis C QUESTION 37 1. When treating a patient with an unknown overdose or toxicity, the AGACNP knows that all of the following should be administered except: A. Dextrose 50% B. Thiamine 100 mg C. Nalaxone 0.4 mg D. Ativan  4 mg QUESTION 38 1. The AGACNP is evaluating 29-year-old female who presents by ambulance and is unresponsive. There is no witness and no history available; the patient is not wearing any sort of medic alert bracelet. While assessing for toxicity or overdose, the patient is found to have vital signs as follows: Temp of 96.2° F, pulse of 48 b.p.m., respirations of 10 b.p.m., and blood pressure of 84/50 mm Hg. The patient’s pupils are constricted, but do react briskly to light to 1 mm. The AGACNP suspects which type of substance? A. Cholinesterase inhibiting drugs B. Stimulants such as MDMA C. Anticholinergics D. Ethanol or opiates QUESTION 39 1. The AGACNP knows that the one class of pain medication that is effective to some extent for all forms of pain is: A. NSAIDs B. Antidepressants C. Antiepileptics D. Opiates QUESTION 40 1. K.P. is a 76-year-old male admitted for antibiotic management of urosepsis. His medical history is significant for a CVA with resultant right-sided hemiparesis. He is nonverbal, maintained on enteral nutritional support and has an indwelling Foley catheter. The AGACNP knows that which of the following bacteria is the primary treatment target for this patient’s urosepsis? A. Proteus  mirabilis B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus pneumoniae QUESTION 41 1. A patient is admitted for a COPD exacerbation and placed on mechanical ventilation. His settings are as follows: FiO2 of 40%, TV of 700mL, SIMV of 12. His morning ABG reveals a pH of 7.37, paCO2 of 51 mm Hg, paO2 of 84 mm Hg and HCO3 of 30 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate response is to: A. Leave the ventilator settings as is B. Increase the SIMV to 16 b.p.m. C. Increase  the FiO2 to 50% D. Repeat the ABG in one hour QUESTION 42 1. All of the following are required for a diagnosis of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) except: A. White blood cell count < 4000 or > 12,000  cells/uL B. Heart rate > 90 b.p.m. C. Respiratory  rate > 20 b.p.m. or paCO2 < 32 mm Hg D. Two  sets of positive blood cultures QUESTION 43 1. J.T. is a 41-year-old female patient who presents with a chief complaint of “heartburn.” She says that it doesn’t really seem to be related to meals or food—it occurs at random times. She does note, when asked, that it seems to happen a lot at night and occasionally wakes her up. Her only other symptom complaint is an occasional cough. It does not produce mucus, and she admits to assuming it was a “nervous” cough. The next appropriate action for the AGACNP would be to: A. Order an H. pylori test B. Request  a GI consult for endoscopy C. Order a proton pump inhibitor 30 minutes before  breakfast D. Request a 72-hour diet history QUESTION 44 1. Your patient has diabetes insipidus (DI). Anticipated physical assessment findings include: A. Dry skin, tachycardia, hypertension B. Weak pulse, dry skin, decreased skin turgor C. Thin hair, thready pulse, dry mucous membranes D. Hypothermia, jugular venous distention,  bradycardia QUESTION 45 1. The AGACNP is beginning medical management of a patient newly diagnosed with T2DM. The patient has a BMI of 39 and has been unsuccessful in making significant diet and lifestyle changes over the last six months. Other than her weight, her physical examination is essentially within normal limits. Her HgbA1c is 9.5%. A basic metabolic panel is within normal limits. The medication of choice to begin therapy will be: A. A sulfonyurea B. A meglitinide C. A biguanide D. An incretin mimetic QUESTION 46 1. Felty’s syndrome is a condition of immune neutropenia seen sometimes in patients with: A. Polymyalgia rheumatica B. Giant cell arteritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Rheumatoid arthritis QUESTION 47 1. When treating a patient for the profound cough of acute bronchitis, the AGACNP knows that the most appropriate pharmacotherapy consists of: A. An opiate based cough suppressant B. Oral prednisone C. A first generation-antihistamine combination D. An inhaled anticholinergic QUESTION 48 1. Mr. Truman is transferred to the emergency department by ambulance. His wife called 911 this morning because he was acting “funny” when he woke up. Both the patient and his wife went to bed last night at approximately 10:30 and everything was normal. This morning he could not communicate orally and seemed confused about how to ambulate. Upon arrival to the emergency department his vital signs are as follows: Temperature 100.9° F, pulse 89 b.p.m., respirations 14 b.p.m. and blood pressure 168/94 mm Hg. A non-contrast CT scan of the head reveals thrombotic CVA. The AGACNP know that immediate management of this patient should include: A. Thrombolytics B. IV vasodilators C. Aspirin D. Antiepileptics QUESTION 49 1. Your patient is complaining of profound nausea and vomiting that started at bedtime last night and kept him awake all night long. Early this morning he started having abdominal cramping and explosive diarrhea. Based upon the character of symptoms you are suspicious of infection with Staphylococcus aureus. To assess risk for exposure to this organism, you ask the patient about which meal? A. Breakfast yesterday B. Lunch yesterday C. Dinner yesterday D. Bedtime snack yesterday QUESTION 50 1. D.R. is a 54-year-old male patient who was admitted for the management of cellulitis and treated with parenteral antibiotics. He has not been responding as well as anticipated. During today’s exam the AGACNP appreciates a couple of changes. All of the following indicate the need for immediate surgical evaluation except: A. Skin anesthesia B. Violaceous bullae C. Gas bubbles in tissue D. Lymphangetic spread QUESTION 51 1. R. O. is a 21-year-old female who comes to the emergency department because of a severe headache. Her vital signs and neurological examination are within normal limits. She complains of a pulse-like pain in her right temple and admits that she has almost vomited. Her mother gets the same type of headache and the last time this happened R.O. took one of her mother’s prescription headache pills. They helped a lot, but this time her mother told her she had to come be evaluated. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is the appropriate action? A. A non-contrast CT scan of the head B. Administration of a 5HT agonist C. Dilaudid 2 mg IM x 1 dose D. Requesting a headache diary QUESTION 52 1. A 39-year-old female presents for evaluation of a rash. She denies any significant medical history, and has no other complaints. The rash appeared suddenly on both forearms approximately one week ago, and she is concerned because it is not going away. It does not itch or hurt—it is just there. Physical examination reveals a diffuse macular hypopigmentation on both forearms that extends to the hands. The patient denies any drug or alcohol use; she is single and has had 4 unprotected sexual partners in the last year. The AGACNP knows that initial laboratory testing must include a(n): A. FTA-Abs B. Fungal skin scraping C. RPR screening D. CBC QUESTION 53 1. J.S. is a African-American female who presents for a wellness examination. Her medical history is significant for beta thalassemia minor. Anticipated red blood cell differential would include which of the following patterns? A. Hgb 10.2 g/dL, Hct 30%, MCV 70 fL, RDW 12.6% B. Hgb 9.9 g/dL, Hct 28%, MCV 83 fL, RDW 13.9% C. Hgb 11.5 g/dL, Hct 35%, MCV 94 fL, RDW 15.8% D. Hgb 12.8 g/dL, Hct 38%, MCV 105 fL, RDW 18.1% QUESTION 54 1. M.T. presents complaining of acute pain in his left eye, nausea, and one episode of vomiting. He denies any significant medical problems, and says that the only medication that he takes is an occasional over-the-counter sleeping pill. Physical examination reveals a steamy red cornea and conjunctiva with a pupil that is 5 mm and not reactive to light. The AGACNP knows that diagnostic testing should include: A. A CT scan of the head B. An MRI of the orbit C. A toxicology screen D. A measurement of intraocular pressure QUESTION 55 1. Justin is a 23-year-old male who is being managed for an acute manic episode. Justin was diagnosed with bipolar disorder several years ago, but his home life has been unstable and he has not been very adherent to a medication regimen. Most recently he was started on the SNRI venlafaxine by his primary care provider, which he has been taking as prescribed for about 6 weeks, but he began a manic episode a few days ago which peaked this evening. The AGACNP considers that: A. The manic episode is probably a result of  medication instability and he should continue his current regimen with a  follow-up in 6-8 weeks B. A mood stabilizing agent should be added to the  venlafaxine C. All medication should be held for 6-8 weeks and  the then the patient should be reevaluated D. The SNRI should be stopped and a mood stabilizing  agent started QUESTION 56 1. Mr. Livingston is a 79-year-old male who presents from a long term care facility with a change in mental status. His medical history is significant for T2DM, CAD, CHF, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s dementia and osteoarthritis. He has been stable, but over the last few days the staff say he has been a bit disconnected. This morning he was found in his bed in a stuporous state. His vital signs include a temperture of 98.9° F, pulse of 103 b.p.m., respiratory rate of 20 b.p.m., and a blood pressure of 92/64 mm Hg. His metabolic panel demonstrates a Na+ of 129 mEq/L, K+ of 3.3 mEq/L, Cl- of 100 mEq/L, CO2 of 24 mEq/L, glucose of 644 mg/dL, BUN of 51 mg/dL and creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL. The AGACNP knows that the primary problem is most likely: A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Hypertonic hyponatremia C. Myxedema coma D. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic coma QUESTION 57 1. The AGACNP is evaluating a patient with systemic lupus erythematosis who complains of fatigue. Based upon his knowledge of the most commonly affected visceral organ, which of the following diagnostic studies should be ordered? A. Echocardiogram B. Chest radiography C. Hepatic function enzymes D. Urinalysis with microscopic QUESTION 58 1. All of the following are true statements about post-traumatic stress disorders (PTSD) except: A. It is more common in women than men B. It is unlikely to occur in children especially  < 10 years old C. It is differentiated from acute stress reaction  by time D. It is not likely in persons with no preexisting  psychiatric disease QUESTION 59 1. Ray M., a 49-year-old male, walks into the emergency room complaining of back pain. He has never had this problem before and cannot identify any injury, but he is in such severe pain he is sure something is wrong. He states that his back has been hurting so badly sometimes he has to stop whatever he is doing and bend forward at the waist. The pain also travels along the outer edge of his left thigh to mid-calf, and he reports a small area of numbness on his anterior thigh. His history and physical examination are otherwise negative. He is an insurance attorney and is not especially active at work, but goes to the gym 5 days a week. He is not overweight, and his vital signs are normal. Physical examination reveals no paraspinal tenderness, and his straight leg raise is negative. A few times during the exam he lay back on the table and grabbed his left leg, flexed both hip, and pulled his knee to his chest, because it helped the pain. The AGACNP knows that immediate pain relief measures must include: A. An opiate analgesic B. Systemic steroids C. Physical therapy D. Bedrest for 72 hours QUESTION 60 1. A patient with peptic ulcer disease is admitted to the hospital with significant upper abdominal discomfort. She has guarding and rebound tenderness on examination. Abdominal radiography demonstrates free air in the abdomen. The AGACNP knows that the immediate priority is to: A. Obtain a stat surgical consult B. Begin an IV proton pump inhibitor C. Order an abdominal CT scan D. Obtain a stat gastroenterology consult QUESTION 61 1. Jennifer is a 15-year-old female who attempted suicide by taking a bottle of acetaminophen. She took 30, 500 mg tablets approximately six hours ago, but then became frightened and told her mother what she did. Her mother said that Jennifer seems OK, other than being a little sick to her stomach, she has no complaints. The AGACNP knows that the first step in her care includes: A. N-acetycysteine in tapering doses over the next  24 hours B. Oral administration of activated charcoal C. Psychiatric assessment D. Discharge to home with follow-up LFTs in 4 days QUESTION 62 1. Mrs. Glassman is a 55-year-old female who presents with a chief complaint of fever. Her vital signs reveal a temperature of 100.0° F, blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, pulse of 114 b.p.m. and respirations of 20 b.p.m. Her cardiac auscultation reveals a grade III/VI systolic murmur at the left lower sternal border. Her history is significant for an eyebrow lift 4 months ago. The AGACNP orders which test to confirm the suspected diagnosis? A. Three sets of blood cultures B. A chest radiograph C. A 12-lead ECG D. Induced sputum culture QUESTION 63 1. John is a 17-year-old male who is in the emergency department with abdominal pain. He is quite uncomfortable and says that it started yesterday and seemed to be “in the middle of his stomach” but today it has moved over to the right lower side. During physical examination the abdomen is not distended, but he is guarded, and right lower quadrant palpation produces significant discomfort, especially upon release of the palpating hand. He has appreciable pain when his right knee and hip are bent to a 90° angle. John admits to some nausea but has not vomited; he has not had a normal bowel movement in two days. His vital signs are as follows: Temperature 100.9° F, pulse 110 b.p.m. respiratory rate 22 b.p.m., and blood pressure 118/77 mm Hg. The AGACNP orders which of the following tests to confirm the suspected diagnosis? A. Complete blood count B. Ultrasound C. CT scan D. Urinalysis QUESTION 64 1. Which of the following signs is expected in patients with cholecystitis? A. McBurney’s B. Cullen’s C. Spurling’s D. Murphy’s QUESTION 65 1. According to the World Health Organization’s step-wise approach to pain management, initial approaches to step 2 might include all of the following except: A. A weak opiate B. A strong opiate C. A non-steroidal antiinflammatory agent D. An antidepressant. QUESTION 66 1. A patient’s Weber test lateralizes to the right ear and the Rinne test in both ears is normal. The patient has a: A. Sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear B. Sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear C. Conductive hearing loss in the left ear D. Conductive hearing loss in the right ear QUESTION 67 1. J.B. is a 62-year-old male who was admitted three days ago for management of diverticulitis. Today the AGACNP is called to the bedside to evaluate new onset swelling of the right lower extremity. According to the staff nurse it was not present yesterday but on today’s assessment the patient had 2A+ edema up to the thigh. Initial diagnostic evaluation should include: A. Homan’s sign B. A venogram C. A D-dimer D. CT of the chest QUESTION 68 1. Based upon clinical examination and laboratory assessment the AGACNP diagnoses a patient with giant cell arteritis. The next step in the patient management should be to: A. Consult surgery for a temporal artery biopsy B. Consult rheumatology for medical management C. Order 60 mg of prednisone now and q.d. D. Order ceftriaxone 1 mg IV now QUESTION 69 1. According to the JNC VIII criteria, a patient with a new diagnosis of hypertension who has comorbid chronic kidney disease should be started on which of the following classes of medications? A. A thiazide diuretic B. A calcium channel blocker C. An ACE inhibitor D. A beta adrenergic antagonist QUESTION 70 1. Denise is a 45-year-old female who presents with significant lower abdominal pain. It started a few days ago and has just gotten steadily worse. She denies any hematuria or dysuria, but when she voids she feels like “everything is coming out. A physical examination reveals an abdomen that is tender to palpation but there is no guarding or rebound. Her vital signs are stable excepting a temperature of 100.9° F. The next step in the evaluation must include: A. A complete blood count B. An abdominal flat plate C. A pelvic examination D. A CT scan of the abdomen QUESTION 71 1. Jan is a 39-year-old female who presents with significant right upper quadrant pain of 18 hours duration. She admits to a few episodes of vomiting. She right upper quadrant pain to palpation but the ultrasound is negative. Jan admits that this has happened before, usually when she “eats a huge meal.” The AGACNP orders which diagnostic study to confirm the diagnosis of cholecystitis? A. Upright abdominal radiography B. Hepatic function panel C. HIDA scan D. Abdominal CT QUESTION 72 1. L.W. is a 41-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus which has been managed primarily with symptom control. Today she presents for evaluation of fatigue which has been slowly progressive over the last few months. She has a history of gastric bypass surgery 10 years ago and has maintained a 100 lb weight loss, but she maintains that she has been very adherent to her vitamin and mineral replacement regimen. Other than chronically heavy menses, for which she takes hormonal contraception, she is without complaint. A complete blood count is as follows: Hgb 10.3 g/dL Hct 31% MCV 88 fL RDW 15% The AGACNP suspects that the patient’s fatigue is most likely due to: A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Anemia of chronic disease C. Pernicious anemia D. Folic acid deficiency QUESTION 73 1. A patient presents for follow up after being started on an ACE inhibitor for hypertension. Her blood pressure has improved, but her pulse is 56 b.p.m down from 76 b.p.m. at her last visit. The AGACNP knows that the patient should assessed for: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyperchloremia QUESTION 74 1. A young-adult male patient was dropped off outside of the emergency department and some staff members brought him inside. The patient is restless, irritable, and either unwilling or unable to participate in her own care. No history is available. His vital signs are essentially stable, finger stick blood sugar is 111 mg/dL, there are no signs of trauma, and no physical findings consistent with common drug or alcohol use. A toxicology screen is pending. The AGACNP orders acute psychiatric stabilization with a combination of haloperidol and lorazepam and considers which of the following mediations to decrease the risk of adverse effects? A. Risperidone B. Olanzapine C. Benztropine D. Zolpidem QUESTION 75 1. Amy is a 21-year-old female who presents with acute nephrolithiasis. CT scan reveals a 2 mm stone in the left ureter. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate course of action is: A. Pain control and IV fluid B. Consultation for stent placement C. Lithotripsy stone destruction D. Transurethral stone destruction QUESTION 76 1. B.T. is a 49-year-old male being admitted for lung volume reduction surgery. His preoperative pulmonary function tests are as follows: FVC 66% predicted FEV1 60% predicted PEFR 69% predicted TLC 104% predicted RV 90% predicted The AGACNP knows that the pulmonary function studies are consistent with: A. Mild restrictive disease B. Moderate restrictive disease C. Mild obstructive disease D. Moderate obstructive disease QUESTION 77 1. A 30-year-old male patient presents for evaluation of a lump on his neck. He denies pain, itch, erythema, edema, or any other symptoms. He is concerned because it won’t go away. He says, “I noticed it a few months ago, then it seemed to disappear, and now it is back.” The AGACNP proceeds with a history and physical exam and concludes which of the following as the leading differential diagnosis? A. Subclinical infection B. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma C. Catscratch disease D. Syphilis QUESTION 78 1. Ms. Teller presents with a chief complaint of weight loss. She reports an unplanned 10 lb weight loss over the last 5-6 months. She has no significant medical history, but review of systems reveals bilateral shoulder discomfort and some impaired range of motion—she has trouble pulling clothing over her head. Over the last few months she has generalized upper body stiffness, but seems to get better after an hour or so of activity. When considering a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica, laboratory assessment may be expected to reveal: A. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 75  mm/hr B. A microcytic, hypochromic anemia C. Elevated liver function enzymes D. Positive antinuclear antibodies QUESTION 79 1. When a patient has lower abdominal discomfort, cervical wall motion tenderness, and adnexal tenderness, the AGACNP knows that this will likely be treated with: A. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin B. Metronidazole and ciprofloxacin C. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole D. IV fluid and pain control QUESTION 80 1. J.L. is an 81-year-old female who is admitted from home after her daughter found her confused and unkempt. She is not a good historian, and her daughter cannot provide any information—when she saw her mother a week ago, she was fine. J.L.’s vital signs are as follows: Temperature 101.4° F, pulse 99 b.p.m., respirations 22 b.p.m., and blood pressure 90/58 mm Hg. Her urinalysis is shows +++ leukocytes, + RBC, and + nitrites. Her metabolic panel reveals a BUN of 39 mg/dL and creatinine of 1.5 mg/dL. The AGACNP knows that J.L has findings consistent with: A. Pre-renal failure B. Intra-renal failure C. Post-renal failure D. Chronic renal failure QUESTION 81 1. Patients with giant cell arteritis are at increased risk of: A. Cerebrovascular accident B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Polymyalgia rheumatica D. Osteoarthritis QUESTION 82 1. The AGACNP is called to the bedside for a patient who is in cardiopulmonary arrest. The monitor demonstrates ventricular fibrillation which will not convert despite several attempts to defibrillate at maximal voltage. While being briefed by the staff nurse on the patient medical history, he learns that the patient has a history of Cushing’s syndrome. The AGACNP recognizes that the patient is probably failing to convert due to: A. Advanced atherosclerotic disease B. Hypokalemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Catecholamine excess QUESTION 83 1. When performing an evaluation of a patient following seizure activity, the AGACNP knows that the most important component of that evaluation is: A. A CT scan of the head B. Eyewitness description C. An EEG D. Administering a benzodiazepine QUESTION 84 1. Which of the following etiologic organisms is most likely to appear as lobar consolidation on chest radiography? A. Legionella pneumophilia B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Pneumocystis carinii D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae QUESTION 85 1. A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with an eGFR of 30 mL/min/1.73m2. The AGACNP knows that the most compelling implication of this value is: A. Control of risk factors for renal deterioration B. Careful attention to renal dosing of medications C. Referring the patient for shunt placement D. Preventing occurrence of renal ischemia QUESTION 86 1. Differential diagnosis of hematuria include all of the following except: A. Bladder cancer B. Nephrolithiasis in the renal parenchyma C. Urinary tract infection D. Prerenal azotemia QUESTION 87 1. A 29-year-old male patient presents with acute scrotal pain and dysuria. He has a temperature of 101.8° F and a pulse of 115 b.p.m. but otherwise vital signs are within normal limits. He gets some relief of the scrotal discomfort when his scrotum is elevated on a rolled towel. This is known as: A. Varicocele B. Prehn’s sign C. Cremasteric sign D. Testicular torsion QUESTION 88 1. The AGACNP knows that patients with psoriasis are at greater risk for: A. Arthritis B. Eczema C. Cellulitis D. Melanoma QUESTION 89 1. Mr. McCarran is a 68-year-old male with a long history of poorly controlled T2DM. He has had progressive burning pain in both feet for the last year or so, but in the last few months it has become increasingly worse. He has tried taking ibuprofen and naproxyn over-the-counter with no improvement. Now, he is presenting for more effective pain management. The AGACNP knows that the medication of choice will be from which drug class? A. NSAIDs B. Opiates C. Antiepileptics D. Anesthetics QUESTION 90 1. Mr. Starwood is a 61-year-old male who was admitted last night for the management of acute pancreatitis. He was admitted n.p.o and started on intravenous fluid and opiate pain management. This morning he reports feeling significantly better. His C-reactive protein this a.m. is 5 mg/dL, amylase and lipase are both just over 2 x upper limits of normal, and his Ransom score is 2. The AGACNP knows that the next step in his care is to: A. Begin clear liquids as tolerated B. Order an abdominal CT C. Order an ERCP D. Continue the current management for 24 hours QUESTION 91 1. When beginning pharmacotherapy for depression, the AGACNP discusses with the patient that a primary safety consideration includes the: A. Increased risk of suicide when patients begin  antidepressant therapy B. Potential for sexual adverse effects C. Better likelihood of success when medications and  therapy are used together D. High incidence of serotonin syndrome QUESTION 92 1. When ruling out meningitis in a patient, the AGACP appreciates that the spinal fluid is cloudy and the glucose content is 20 cells/microliter. This is most consistent with: A. Aseptic meningitis B. Septic meningitis C. Chemical meningitis D. Chronic meningitis QUESTION 93 1. A 44-year-old male patient presents in a hypertensive crisis. The blood pressure is 240/136 mm Hg, pulse is 128 b.p.m. and the patient is complaining of a severe, pounding headache. His skin is diaphoretic and he is visibly tremulous. The first diagnostic study to evaluate the suspected diagnosis should be a: A. 24 hour urine for catecholamine metabolites B. Serum epinephrine and metanephrines C. T scan of the abdomen D. MRI of the abdomen QUESTION 94 1. An unidentified patient is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being hit by a motor vehicle. She has multiple injuries and an estimated blood loss of 2 liters. The hematocrit is 19%. The AGACNP expects that the mean cell volume (MCV) would most likely be: A. 70 fL B. 80 fL C. 90 fL D. 110 fL QUESTION 95 1. Mrs. Oliver is a 71-year-old petite Caucasian female. During a routine dexa screening she was found to have a T-score of -3.0. The AGACNP knows that the first intervention should include: A. Calcium B. Vitamin D C. Bisphosphonates D. Estrogen QUESTION 96 1. When evaluating a family with suspected carbon monoxide exposure, the AGACNP knows that assessment should include all of the following except: A. Vital signs B. Pulse oximetry C. Cardiac rhythm strip D. Carboxyhemoglobin level QUESTION 97 1. Mr. Riley is a 61-year-old male who just had bilateral knee replacements. There was more fluid loss than intended during the procedure. The AGACNP knows that metabolic alkalosis is the most common postoperative acid-base imbalance and is best treated with: A. Normal saline infusion B. An insulin drip C. Low volume hydrochloric acid D. Albumin QUESTION 98 1. Patients in advanced stages of chronic kidney disease are at greatest risk for which of the following conditions? A. Polycythemia B. Hypokalemia C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Anemia QUESTION 99 1. The diagnostic study of choice in mesenteric ischemia is: A. Ultrasound B. CT angiography C. MR angiography D. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage QUESTION 100 1. Mr. Maxwell is a 58-year-old male who presents with left foot pain. Physical examination reveals a foot that is normal in appearance with DP and PT pulses that are barely audible by Doppler. The AGACNP has the patient cross the leg with the left foot resting on the right knee; after 30 seconds that left foot is briskly lowered to the floor. Instantly the left foot turns bright red. This is known as: A. Venous insufficiency B. Brawny hyperpigmentation C. Homan’s sign D. Dependent rubor QUESTION 101 1. 152: When completing this exam, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Yes No NURS 6550 Final Exam / NURS6550 Final Exam (Latest): Walden University Walden University NURS 6550 Final Exam / Walden University NURS6550 Final Exam Question A 21-year-old woman requests hormonal emergency contraception after a condom break during intercourse approximately 16 hours ago. Today is day 14 of her normally 27–29 day menstrual cycle. You advise her that: Likelihood of conception is minimal and emergency contraception use is not advised Hormonal emergency contraception can be effective up to 5 days after intercourse When taken as advised, hormonal emergency contraception use reduces the risk of pregnancy by up to 65% The most likely mechanism of action of hormonal emergency contraceptive is as an abortifacient Question A 36-year-old man is hospitalized for alcohol poisoning. During follow-up evaluation the next day, he denies that he has a drinking problem. The best approach to assess for possible alcoholism is conducting which of the following questionnaires? BDI. HEADDS. CAGE. PHQ-9. Question A quality improvement plan characterized by limiting variability and removing defects in a process best describes: Six Sigma. Continuous Quality Improvement. Total Quality Management. Healthcare Stewardship. Question A 38-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a rapid heartbeat, tremors, and chest tightness. She reports earlier in the day she was feeling a migraine starting so she took a pill given to her by her friend who also experiences migraines. Her medical history reveals that she is currently taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor for depression. Which migraine medication did she most likely take? Acetaminophen and caffeine (Excedrin ® Migraine) Naproxen sodium (Aleve ® ) Almotriptan (Axert ® ) Butalbital, acetaminophen and caffeine (Fioricet ® ) Question All of the following are elements of malpractice except: A duty of care to the patient. A fee is charged for the healthcare services related to the malpractice claim. Breach of the standard of care. Injury. Question You are seeing a 68-year-old woman for treatment of an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). She has well-controlled hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and dyslipidemia and takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI), statin, biguanide, and low-dose aspirin (ASA). She worked in a dry cleaning facility until approximately 8 years ago. During her evaluation, she mentions that she sometimes has difficulty understanding conversation, especially in noisy environments. This is likely a: Drug-related reaction. Consequence of occupational chemical exposure. Early sign of dementia. Normal age-related change in hearing Question While evaluating a 33-year-old female with a 2-day history of dysuria, which of the following findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism? Nitrites 30 mg/dL protein Epithelial cells pH>8 Question All of the following are examples of primary prevention strategies except: Counseling an elderly patient prior to discharge about fall risk at home and how to prevent falls through adequate illumination. Performing a hemoglobin A1C for all patients admitted to the hospital. Conducting a study to identify the leading cause of mortality in teenagers and how to reduce risk. Immunizing all adults ≥60 years with zoster vaccine. Question A 23-year-old woman is being evaluated for an upper respiratory tract infection. As you prepare for auscultation, the patient states “I have a benign murmur that has been with me my whole life”. Anticipating a physiologic murmur, you would expect which of the following characteristics? Usually obliterates S2. Becomes softer when going from a supine to standing position. Occurs late in systole. Has localized area of auscultation Question When evaluating the value of a test, the proportion of negative results that are truly negative best describes: Positive predictive value. Negative predictive value. Sensitivity. Specificity. Question A 16-year-old male presents for evaluation after a syncopal episode at school. He reports that he has recently been experiencing bouts of lightheadedness. His blood pressure is 126/76 mm Hg and his BMI=33 kg/m 2 . You notice velvet-like plaques at the nape of the neck. Laboratory assessment should include which of the following tests? Hemoglobin A1c Serum electrolytes ALT/AST Hemogram Question The NP is called to treat a 43-year-old woman for multiple contusions following a domestic violence attack. The NP realizes that one of the best predictors of a subsequent homicide of victims of domestic violence is: History of alcohol/drug abuse by perpetrator. Access to kitchen knives by the perpetrator. History of perpetrator attempting to strangle the victim. Issuance of a restraining order by the victim. Question A 48-year-old woman is being evaluated with chief complaints of fatigue, weakness, lethargy, and decreased concentration. She also mentions a notable increase in facial hair over the past 6 months as well as unexplained weight gain (about 25 lbs [11.3 kg]) over the past 2 months. Her past medical history is notable for moderate persistent asthma with multiple exacerbations over the past 8 months requiring treatment with prednisone. The most likely diagnosis is: Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Hashimoto thyroiditis. Cushing’s syndrome. Addison’s disease. Question You see a 73-year-old woman with a 40 pack-year smoking history, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) who presents with an ulcer on the sole of her left foot. The ulcer has an irregular edge and pale base and a punched out appearance, with the surrounding skin white and shiny. The patient states that the pain is worse at night in bed and when the legs are elevated. The most likely diagnosis is: Pressure ulcer Pyoderma gangrenosum Venous ulcer Arterial ulcer Question In evaluating a 62-year-old male with ischemic heart disease and mitral incompetency, you expect to find the murmur that is: Localized systolic. Diastolic with radiation to the neck. Diastolic with little radiation. Systolic with radiation to the axillae. Question 21-year-old camp counselor presents for evaluation with a chief complaint of generalized itchiness. He has just returned after a week of summer camp. Physical examination reveals excoriated papules along his axillary folds and at the belt line. The NP suspects scabies and prescribes permethrin (Elimite ® ) lotion. In counseling the patient on the use of permethrin, the NP mentions that: Its use is associated with neurotoxicity risk. Itch often persists for a few weeks after successful treatment. A marked reduction in lesions is noted within 48 hours. The medication should be rinsed off within 2 hours of application. Question You see a 76-year-old woman living at home who is accompanied by her home care provider. She has COPD and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An example of a secondary prevention strategy is: Administering the seasonal influenza vaccine. Screening for physical or financial abuse/Checking her blood glucose level. Checking her blood pressure. Adjusting her insulin dosing regimen. Question A 43-year-old woman is being evaluated in the emergency department with a complaint of a severe headache. She describes a unilateral, pulsing headache that was preceded by a gradual onset of paresthesia affecting the ipsilateral face and arm. The patient stated she noticed a “funny smell” prior to the symptoms starting. This description is most typical of: Migraine with aura. Cluster headache. Transient ischemic attack. Tension-type headache. Question A 20-year-old college student living in a campus dormitory has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. The NP decides to speak with the university health officials and inform them that: There is little to no risk of spread of the disease to other individuals. Only intimate partners are at risk for infection. Individuals with household-type or more intimate contact are at risk for infection. All individuals on campus can be considered to be at risk for infection. Question You see a 54-year-old man living in subsidized housing with a history of hypertension. He states that he stopped taking his blood pressure medication about 4 months ago because of costs. He is concerned because his blood pressure is high whenever he checks it, though he does not report any symptoms. His BP at this visit is 196/104 mm Hg. Upon examination of this patient, you would expect to detect an S 4 sound heard during: Early systole. Late systole. Early diastole. Late diastole. Question 32-year-old man requires evaluation for hepatitis infection prior to taking a job as a restaurant cook. He presents with the following laboratory results: Hepatitis A Panel Hepatitis B Panel Hepatitis C Panel Anti-HAV Negative HBsAg Negative Anti-HCV Positive IgM Negative Anti-HBc Negative HCV RNA Negative IgM Negative Anti-HBs Positive You recognize the patient is susceptible to: Hepatitis A and B Hepatitis B and C Hepatitis B only Hepatitis A only Question When evaluating illness symptoms in older patients, the disease will often present differently from younger adults due to: The likelihood of polypharmacy. Decreased compensatory mechanisms in the elderly. An increased physiologic response to illness in the elderly. Presence of comorbid conditions. Question When prioritizing risk factors for bacterial endocarditis, the nurse practitioner knows who among the following patients has the highest risk. A 55-year-old man with 3-vessel coronary artery bypass grafts with stents. A 23-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse without tissue redundancy. A 65-year-old man with nonobstructive cardiomyopathy. A 75-year-old woman with a nonorganic prosthetic aortic valve. Question The legal authority for NPs to perform healthcare services as defined by state law is called: Duty of care. Non-malfeasance. Autonomy. Scope of practice. Question A patient who was seen for an upper respiratory tract infection has an abnormal blood test result and requires a follow-up visit. The patient repeatedly fails to show up for the follow-up visit. Which of the following is the best approach to inform the patient of the need and urgency for a repeat test? A voicemail or text message. A visit to her home. An e-mail message marked as “urgent”. A certified letter. Question A 26-year-old male presents with a chief complaint of bilateral, intermittent itchy eyes accompanied by rope-like discharge. This is most consistent with conjunctivitis caused by: A virus. Bacteria. Over-exposure to smoke. Allergen. Question When developing a management plan for patients with genitourinary infections, which of the following would you most likely recommend for follow-up imaging following resolution of their infection? A 27-year-old nonpregnant woman with acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). A 38-year-old nonpregnant woman with 2 acute, uncomplicated UTIs in the past 9 months. A 57-year-old man with acute bacterial prostatitis. A 43-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and recurrent pyelonephritis. Question s. Wang is a 56-year-old female who was seen 2 weeks ago for evaluation of ongoing abdominal discomfort and nausea. Laboratory assessment revealed H. pylori and she was treated for peptic ulcer disease with an appropriate antibiotic/proton-pump inhibitor combination. She returns today and admits to no real change in her symptoms. This suggests that: Treatment was inadequate and a salvage regimen should be used. It is too soon to expect a response and the patient should be reevaluated in four weeks. The patient could have complicated peptic ulcer disease and should be referred for endoscopy. Peptic ulcer disease is likely not the correct diagnosis. Question The NP is called to evaluate Jane, a 43-year-old woman, who presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash that began on the trunk but now covers the entire body, including the palms and soles. The rash is not itchy but wart-like sores are present in the mouth and genital area as well as skin folds. Initial evaluation reveals generalized lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever, and she complains of lethargy and headache. The patient reports that she had a painless genital ulcer that healed on its own about 3 weeks earlier. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Primary syphilis. Secondary syphilis. Genital herpes. Gonorrhea. Question A 27-year-old man presents with a chief concern of an abnormal mass within his left scrotum. He describes it as feeling like a “bag of worms” and is present when he is standing but disappears when he lies down. His past medical history is unremarkable and his BMI is 29 kg/m 2 . He has been in a monogamous relationship for the past 4months. The most likely diagnosis is: Testicular torsion. Syphilis. Varicocele. Testicular cancer. Question An 18-year-old man is being evaluated for a severe exacerbation of asthma. He is currently taking an inhaled corticosteroid, a long-acting beta-agonist, and a short-acting beta-agonist on an as needed basis. The most important component of the initial assessment includes a(n): Continuous pulse oximetry reading Peak expiratory flow reading Chest X-ray Arterial Blood Gas Question A 67-year-old man is being evaluated for shortness of breath. His medical history reveals that he experienced a myocardial infarction about 2 years ago and a history of hypertension, which is well controlled by diet.. Otherwise, his medical history is unremarkable. Which of the following would you expect to find on electrocardiogram (ECG)? T wave inversion. Pathologic Q wave. ST segment elevation. Tall R wave. Question A 46-year-old man is rushed to the emergency department while experiencing an acute adrenal crisis that presents with abdominal pain, severe vomiting, and low blood pressure. He appears cyanotic and confused. The most appropriate treatment for this patient is an injection of: Insulin. Epinephrine . Hydrocortisone. Antihistamine. Question A 74-year-old male with asymptomatic atrial fibrillation underwent electrical cardioversion that successfully restored the heart’s rhythm. Which of the following medications can be considered for the purpose of maintaining the heart’s rhythm? Sotalol (Betapace ® ) Digoxin (Lanoxin ® ) Dabigatran (Pradaxa ® ) Enalapril (Vasotec ® ) Question In considering the use of an inhaled anticholinergic, such as tiotropium bromide (Spiriva ® ), for the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the NP recognizes which of the following is the desired therapeutic action? Mucolytic agent. Bronchodilator. Increases mucociliary clearance. Antihistamine effect. Question A 14-year-old male is brought in for evaluation after he reportedly collapsed during a tennis match, though he quickly regained consciousness. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. You suspect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following heart murmur characteristics would support the diagnosis? Occurs late in systole. Widely split S₂. Becomes louder when going from a supine to standing position. Murmur follows mid-systolic click. Question You see a 64-year-old man with an area of erythema concentrated on the left side of his neck with clusters of vesicles forming a line. He reported pain in the area a couple of days before the eruption of the lesions. He states that he recently initiated biologic therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Impetigo. Herpes zoster. Drug-related adverse reaction. Viral exanthem. Question Gary is a 63-year-old African American male who has been treated for hypertension with ACE inhibitor monotherapy for the past 6 weeks. Despite Gary’s insistence that he is taking his medication as directed, his blood pressure continues to be elevated. Gary mentions that he prefers not having to take multiple medications each day due to cost and convenience. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action? Continue with the current regimen as the full effects are not observed until about 8 weeks of treatment. Add an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) to the regimen. Switch to a beta blocker. Switch to a calcium channel blocker. Question An NP’s duty of care can be established: Only in the setting of a healthcare institution (e.g., hospital, clinic, etc.). When the NP gives professional advice or treatment in any setting. Only when a fee is charged, either to the patient or third-party payer, for services. Only when both the NP and patient acknowledge a patient-provider relationship. Question The NP is called to evaluate a 48-year-old man who was brought to the emergency department after experiencing severe low back pain following an attempt to lift heavy furniture. He also reports a coincident loss of bowel and bladder control. This most likely indicates: Sciatic nerve entrapment Vertebral fracture Cauda equina syndrome Muscular spasm Question A 49-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of burning during urination, a thin and grayish-white vaginal discharge, and vagina itching. On laboratory examination, you expect to find all of the following except: Abundant white blood cells Clue cells Pseudohyphae Alkaline vaginal pH Question The NP is called to evaluate a 34-year-old nonpregnant woman who complains of a 4-week history of anxiety, palpitations, diarrhea, unexplained weight loss, and sensitivity to heat. Her medical history is unremarkable and she is not taking any medications. Physical examination reveals warm, moist skin and exaggerated deep tendon reflexes. The NP suspects Graves’ disease. Which of the following laboratory results would best support this diagnosis? Free T₄ =6 pmol/L (NL=10–27 pmol/L). Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)=0.05 mU/L (NL=0.15–4.0 mU/L). ESR=37 mm/h (NL <15 mm/h). Total WBC=4,200/mm³, 10% Neutrophils w/ hypersegmentation (NL=6,000–10,000/mm³ , 50%–70% Neutrophils). Question Phyllis is a 34-year-old woman who presents for a chief complaint of a migraine resulting in nausea and vomiting. She reports that she experiences multiple migraines each month. She is given a prescription for sumatriptan (Imitrex ® ) 100-mg tablets orally to treat acute migraine pain. When counseling Phyllis about the medication, the nurse practitioner advises about all of the following adverse effects except: Sedation Chest tightness Dry mouth Nausea/vomiting Question In managing a 58-year-old woman who is admitted for deep vein thrombosis, caution should be used with which of the following medications due to a risk of drug-induced thrombocytopenia? Warfarin (Coumadin®) Clopidogrel (Plavix®) Dabigatran (Pradaxa®) Unfractionated heparin Question A 77-year-old woman with urinary incontinence is brought in by her caregiver for evaluation of a potential urinary tract infection. She is mentally alert and responds clearly to questions. The caregiver waits in the waiting area. While performing a routine comprehensive physical examination, you notice bruises on her right and left upper arms. The most appropriate approach would be to say: "Did someone grab you here?" "I’m concerned about your safety regarding these bruises on your arms." "I notice you have similar bruising on both arms." "Shall I ask your caregiver about these bruises?" Question A 27-year-old woman with a known sulfa allergy presents with an uncomplicated UTI. She has not received any systemic antimicrobials in the past 6 months. She is currently not pregnant and is using norelgestromin/ethinyl estradiol patch (Ortho Evra ® ) for birth control. You recommend treatment with: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim ® ). Amoxicillin (Amoxil ® ). Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid ® ). Cephalexin (Keflex ® ). Question You are examining a 64-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease. In assessing the patient for mitral stenosis, you expect to find a heart murmur characterized as: High-pitched blowing systolic murmur heard best a third left intercostal space. Late systolic crescendo murmur with honking quality heard best at apex. Localized low-pitch late diastolic heard best at apex. Early diastolic murmur heard best at left sternal border with radiation to the neck. Question 21-year-old female student presents at the university clinic with a nosebleed. This is her third bleeding episode in the past week. She is otherwise healthy with no history of bleeding disorders. The NP advises that the appropriate first-line intervention for anterior epistaxis is: Nasal packing. Application of topical thrombin. Firm pressure to the area superior to the nasal alar cartilage. Utilization of a dehumidifier at home. Question Tertiary prevention activities for a 69-year-old woman with congestive heart failure and type 2 diabetes mellitus include: Adjusting therapy to minimize dyspnea. Administering the pneumococcal vaccine. Skin survey for pre-cancerous lesions. Assessing her creatinine clearance. Question You see a 77-year-old male for treatment of a laceration on his forearm. Upon examination, you notice poor skin turgor when assessed on the arms and back of the hands. This is likely a sign of: Dehydration. Normal age-related change. Early heart failure. Renal dysfunction. Question All of the following practices are recommended when prescribing medications with confusing or similar-sounding names except: Writing the purpose of the medication on the prescription order. Considering selecting medications without nomenclature problems. Including either the generic or brand name on the prescription order, but not both. Providing patients with written information about their drugs. Question Which of the following describes the ethical principle of veracity? Healthcare resources are allocated so that the best is done for the greatest number of people. The responsibility of the healthcare provider is to treat all people in the same fair manner. The healthcare provider must be truthful and avoid deception. The healthcare provider has an obligation to be faithful to commitments made to self and others. Question Which of the following examples describes a potential malpractice scenario? A patient with known penicillin allergy is prescribed amoxicillin but no allergic reaction occurs. A post-myocardial infarction patient is prescribed an inappropriate dose of clopidogrel and experiences a severe bleeding episode. A patient with a urinary tract infection does not see any improvement in signs and symptoms 3 days after given a dose-appropriate prescription for trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. A patient realizes prior to taking any of the medication that the wrong drug was dispensed at the pharmacy. Question An 84-year-old female patient is admitted from a local long-term care facility (illnes). The patient is normally awake, alert, and oriented. She resides in the LTCF because she has not fully recovered from a broken hip resulting from a fall 4 months ago; otherwise she is in relatively good health. She can walk short distances with a walker, though she primarily stays in a wheelchair. Today, however, the nursing staff found her to be acutely confused and unable to ambulate without falling. She was transferred to the emergency department for evaluation. Initial laboratory testing must include: 2 sets of blood cultures. Serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level. Urinalysis. Lumbar puncture. Question A 67-year-old female has a long history of chronic venous insufficiency (CVI) and was seen by the nurse practitioner for brown discoloration on her calves. The nurse practitioner diagnoses hyperpigmentation due to CVI and presented the appropriate treatment plan. When evaluating the patient’s understanding, the nurse practitioner expects that she will say: “I should stay out of the sun or use sunscreen when my legs must be exposed.” “I need to elevate my legs as often as I can.” “I will use hydrocortisone cream twice a day for the next two weeks and then come back for my appointment.” “There is really nothing to help this discoloration.” Question The NP is called to evaluate a 56-year-old man complaining of severe pain in the upper right abdomen that radiates to the right shoulder, nausea and vomiting, which started soon after dinner. The NP suspects acute cholecystitis. All of the following findings would be consistent with the diagnosis except: Elevated aminotransaminase (AST) Elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) Microcytic anemia Leukocytosis Question A 43-year-old woman presents in the emergency department with a chief complaint of swelling of the ankles, hands, and face. She also reports urine that is darkly colored and foamy. Her blood pressure is 184/118 mm Hg. All of the following urinalysis findings will support a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis except: Elevated levels of ketones. Presence of white blood cells. Elevated levels of protein. Presence of red blood cell casts. Question While conducting an examination of a 15-year-old female accompanied by her mother regarding a potential sexually transmitted disease, the NP knows that the best approach to the visit would be to: Ensure the mother is present at all times. Ask the adolescent if she wishes the mother to be included in the interview and examination. Interview the adolescent with the mother and then asking the mother to leave for the physical examination. Interview and examine the adolescent in the absence of the mother. Question A 23-year-old college student presents with a 2-day history of severe sore throat and difficulty eating or drinking due to trouble swallowing. A physical examination reveals exudative pharyngitis and minimally tender anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The NP suspects infectious mononucleosis and would expect which of the following laboratory findings? Neutrophilia with reactive forms. Thrombocytosis. Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes. Diminished ALT/AST levels. Question A 45-year-old male is being prepared for release after receiving analgesic treatment for low back pain due to an acute lumbosacral strain. He is in otherwise good health and typically exercises on a daily basis. He asks when he will be able to start exercising again. The most appropriate response is: You should not exercise until you are completely pain-free. Conditioning exercises should be started immediately. Leg numbness is to be expected with muscle-strengthening exercises. Back-strengthening exercises may cause mild muscle soreness. Question Mrs. Gonzalez is a 53-year-old female who is being evaluated for routine follow-up care. Her medical history includes dyslipidemia, hypertension, and rheumatoid arthritis. Laboratory analysis reveals elevated serum alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST). The long-term use of which of the following medications is the most likely cause of this finding? Calcium channel blocker Statin ACE inhibitor Methotrexate Question "Incident-to" services are defined as those which are "an integral, although incidental, part of the physician's personal professional services in the course of diagnosis or treatment of an injury or illness". As long as certain criteria are met, “incident to” billing is an option in all of the following settings except: Office visits. Hospital. Nursing home. Home visits. Question A 78-year-old male is being treated for a hypoglycemic episode. He has a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus as well as congestive heart failure and COPD. He is currently taking basal insulin with a sulfonylurea. What is the acceptable A1C goal for this patient? ≤6.5% ≤7.0% ≤8.0% ≤9.0% Question A 47-year-old woman reports that her long-time boyfriend was recently diagnosed with liver cancer possibly caused by a chronic hepatitis B infection. Though she does not have any symptoms, she wants to be checked for hepatitis B. She can’t recall if she has ever been vaccinated for hepatitis B. The laboratory results are as follows: Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg): Positive Hepatitis B surface antibody (Anti-HBs): Negative Total hepatitis B core antibody (Anti-HBc): Positive IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen: Negative These findings are most consistent with: Evidence of effective hepatitis B immunization. Evidence of hepatitis B infection in the past. Immunity against future hepatitis B infection. Chronic hepatitis B. Question You see a 74-year-old male who is accompanied by his granddaughter who lives with him. He has hypertension, a prior myocardial infarction, long-standing type 2 diabetes, and recently underwent a lower limb amputation secondary to diabetes. He is currently taking an ACE inhibitor, statin, low-dose aspirin, biguanide, and insulin. The granddaughter reports that since the amputation, her grandfather sometimes becomes withdrawn, irritable and moody for no apparent reason, does not want to participate in the typical activities he enjoys, and often does not appear to eat much during the day. She also states that he often complains of being tired but normally wakes up in the early morning hours. The most appropriate action is to evaluate the patient for: Dementia. Depression. Delirium. Drug interaction. Question A 15-year-old male is brought in to the emergency department by his parents following a 12-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals obturator and psoas signs and a temperature of 102.6ºF (39.2ºC). Anticipated white blood cell (WBC) with differential results are as follows: Total WBC=18,100/mm 3 , Neutrophils=50%, Bands=1%, Lymphocytes=40% Total WBC=14,000/mm 3 , Neutrophils=55%, Bands=3%, Lymphocytes=38% Total WBC=4,500/mm 3 , Neutrophils=35%, Bands=2%, Lymphocytes=45%–55% with reactive forms Total WBC=16,500/mm 3 , Neutrophils=66%, Bands=8%, Lymphocytes=22% Question A 42-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of inability to tightly close the eye lid, frown, or smile on the right side. His examination is otherwise unremarkable and past medical history is unremarkable. This likely represents paralysis of cranial nerve (CN): III IV VII VIII Question Which of the following activities best demonstrates fulfillment of the nursing leadership role? Screening a 36-year-old woman for hypertension. Collaborating with a local health clinic on strategies to improve adult vaccination rates. Volunteering to teach a group of high school students about the dangers of prescription drug abuse. Collaborating with an infectious disease specialist on the care of a patient with community-acquired pneumonia. Question In considering treatment for Jane in the previous question, which of the following would be most appropriate if she has a history of penicillin allergy? Amoxicillin (Amoxil ® ). Doxycycline (Doryx ® ). Famciclovir (Famvir ® ). Ciprofloxacin (Cipro ® ). Question A 17-year-old high school wrestler presents with an 8 cm-diameter area of warm, red, edematous area on his left arm with sharply demarcated borders. The patient is otherwise healthy and without fever. Given a concern for community-associated methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA) infection, the most appropriate treatment option for this patient is: High-dose amoxicillin (Amoxil ® ). Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin ® ). Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim ® ). Daptomycin (Cubicin ® ). Question You see a 58-year-old man who complains of a persistent dry, hacking cough. He reports that he recently started taking a medication to treat high blood pressure. He is most likely taking a(n): Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor Alpha-adrenergic antagonist Angiotensin receptor blocker Beta-adrenergic antagonist Question A 77-year-old woman is accompanied by her husband for evaluation. She is currently being treated with metoprolol (Lopressor ® ) for hypertension and digoxin (Lanoxin ® ) for atrial fibrillation. He reports that his wife is becoming increasingly forgetful over the past year, failing to note important family events such as birthdays, and sometimes becomes confused with driving directions to familiar locations. She has no previous psychiatric history. The most likely diagnosis is: Parkinson’s disease. Delirium. Dementia. Early stage of congestive heart failure. Question The NP is called to evaluate a 51-year-old man with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis. He currently smokes 1 PPD and has a 30 pack-year cigarette smoking history. His medical history shows that he is allergic to penicillin. Two weeks ago, he was treated with a macrolide for "bronchitis". You now prescribe: Clarithromycin (Biaxin ® ). Levofloxacin (Levaquin ® ). Cephalexin (Keflex ® ). Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin ® ). Question Which of the following is most consistent with the hepatic enzyme profile of a person with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease? AST=1208 U/L, ALT=560 U/L. AST=45 U/L, ALT=88 U/L. AST=678 U/L, ALT=990 U/L. AST=98 U/L, ALT=149 U/L. Question A 32-year-old woman in her second trimester of pregnancy presents with fever, flank pain, and hematuria. The NP suspects pyelonephritis. Which of the following urinalysis results would be most indicative of pyelonephritis? >100 red blood cells (RBCs) per high power field (HPF) Protein ≥300 mg/dL White blood cell (WBC) casts Ketones Question Laboratory findings of a 28-year-old male suspected of heatstroke can include all of the following except: Hyperkalemia. Elevated total creatine kinase. Hypernatremia. Leukocytosis. Question Mrs. Conner is a 76-year-old woman living in a long-term care facility and has been bedridden with a respiratory infection for the past 4 days. She is brought in for evaluation and you note signs of dehydration as well as a section of epidermal skin loss about 3 cm in diameter on her right hip. The dermal layer appears intact. This would be considered a pressure ulcer of Stage: 1 2 3 4 Question Which of the following represents the highest level of scientific evidence when evaluating clinical research? A randomized controlled trial. Systematic review/ Meta-analysis of randomized controlled troals. Observational study. Cohort study. Question A 24-year-old with a history of major depressive disorder is rushed to the emergency department by his friends after taking an overdose of antidepressant medication. The ingestion of which of the following medications poses the greatest risk of death for this patient? A 4-day supply of diazepam (Valium ® ) A 3-week supply of Bupropion (Wellbutrin ® ) A 2-week supply of nortriptyline (Pamelor ® ) A 3-week supply of duloxetine (Cymbalta ® ) Question The NP is called to evaluate a 72-year-old woman with community-acquired pneumonia. Her vital signs include temperature 101.6ºF (38.7ºC), BP 106/68 mm Hg, and heart rate 78 bpm. Physical examination reveals increased tactile fremitus and dullness to percussion at the left lung base. These findings are consistent with: Cavitation Pneumothorax Lung abscess Consolidation Question A 64-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with a chief complaint of lethargy. His hemogram is as follows: -Hemoglobin (Hg)=9.9 g/dL (12–14 g/dL -Hematocrit (Hct)=30% (36%–42%) -Mean cell volume (MCV)=81 fL (80–96 fL -Reticulocytes=0.7% (1%–2%) These findings are most consistent with: Iron deficiency anemia. Anemia of chronic disease. Folate deficiency anemia. Thalassemia trait. Question The NP is called to evaluate a 57-year-old man who reports episodes of acute angina with physical exertion. He is currently taking an ACE inhibitor and low-dose aspirin. The NP considers which of the following approaches at the start of anginal symptoms? An oral dose of a P2Y 12 inhibitor. An extra dose of the ACE inhibitor. A dose of nitroglycerin via sublingual spray. Supplemental oxygen therapy for 10 minutes. Question You see a 71-year-old man with atrial fibrillation and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia. His medical history does not show any drug allergies and he completed a course of a respiratory fluoroquinolone for the treatment of acute bacterial sinusitis within the past month. Which of the following would you consider the most appropriate choice of antimicrobial? Cefpodoxime (Vantin ® ) Amoxicillin (Amoxil ® ) with doxycycline (Doryx ® ) Azithromycin (Zithromax ® ) Moxifloxacin (Avelox ® ) Question A 27-year-old woman is being evaluated for a 7-day history of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis. She is otherwise healthy and has not received any antimicrobial therapy in the past 6 months. She also has no history of drug allergy. In considering a first-line antimicrobial treatment, all of the following would be appropriate except : Amoxicillin (Amoxil ® ). Cefuroxime (Ceftin ® ). Azithromycin (Zithromax ® ). Levofloxacin (Levaquin ® ). Question When managing elderly patients with diminished cognitive function, which of the following statements is true regarding patient competence for making informed healthcare decisions? First-degree relatives can declare a person incompetent. Healthcare providers do not have the ability to determine whether a patient can provide informed consent. A pattern of impaired judgment can be used to declare a patient incompetent. Only a court can appoint a guardian to make decisions for a patient declared incompetent. Question n 18-year-old female is being evaluated for wheezing that occurs on an intermittent basis. Symptoms occur about 3–4-times weekly, but not daily. Nighttime awakenings due to wheezing or coughing occur about once per week. Her FEV 1 is 85% predicted and Asthma Control Test (ACT) score is 22. The patient is diagnosed with mild persistent asthma and initiated on Step 2 treatment, which will include: Short-acting beta 2 -agonist (SABA) on an as needed basis only. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) only. Medium-dose ICS plus LABA. LABA only. Question A 57-year-old female presents for a flu shot as she has heard reports that it will be “a bad flu season”. She has had no primary care for more than 10 years as she lacked health insurance. She admits to a 30 pack-year cigarette smoking history, currently smoking 1 pack-per-day (PPD). Her history and examination are unremarkable. Which screening test will you recommend? Sputum cytology Mammography Hemoglobin electrophoresis Fasting serum triglycerides Question A 46-year-old woman presents with a 12-hour history of fever, severe pain in the upper right abdomen, and positive Murphy’s sign. Her medical history is unremarkable and she is in otherwise good health. The most likely diagnosis is: Appendicitis. Chronic cholelithiasis. Acute cholecystitis. Acute viral hepatitis. Question You see a 68-year-old woman who is being treated for moderate depression. She complains that her medication is causing symptoms of dry mouth and constipation. She is most likely taking which of the following medications? Venlafaxine (Effexor ® ) Citalopram (Celexa ® ) Fluoxetine (Prozac ® ) Nortriptyline (Pamelor ® ) Question Bill is a 46-year-old man who is rushed to the emergency department after experiencing sudden onset of edema of the lips and face and a sensation of “throat tightness and difficulty breathing” following a wasp sting. His blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, heart rate 120 bpm, and respiratory rate 32/min. The first course of action in caring for Bill is to administer: Diphenhydramine (Benadryl ® ). Epinephrine (EpiPen ® ). Nitroglycerin (Nitrolingual ® ). Ranitidine (Zantac ® ). Question You are evaluating a 44-year-old woman with community-acquired pneumonia. She has no comorbidities, no reported history of drug allergy, and has not received any antimicrobial therapy in the past 6 months. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment choice? Ceftriaxone (Rocephin ® ). Azithromycin (Zithromax ® ). Linezolid (Zyvox ® ). Moxifloxacin (Avelox ® ). Question Bettie is a 33-year-old mother of two children who presents for treatment of a lower urinary tract infection. This is her third episode in the past 6 months. She is prescribed appropriate antibiotic therapy and is taught strategies to decrease urinary tract infection. Which of the following is recommended for the prevention of recurrent UTI in at-risk patients? Voiding before and after coitus. Drinking two glasses of cranberry juice each day. Use of lactobacillus probiotics. Continuous low-dose antimicrobial prophylaxis. Question A 26-year-old woman presents with uncomplicated UTI. She is otherwise healthy, has not received any systemic antimicrobials in the past year, does not have a sulfa allergy, and is not taking any medications. She is currently not pregnant and is using etonogestrel/ethinyl estradiol vaginal ring (NuvaRing ® ) for contraception. The local E. coli resistance rate to TMP/SMX is about 12%. The preferred therapy for this patient is: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim ® ). Amoxicillin (Amoxil ® ). Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid ® ). Cephalexin (Keflex ® ). Question A 78-year-old man is brought in by his neighbor who reports that she found him sitting in the front yard. She reports that he mumbled something about waiting for his wife, though she passed away more than 10 years ago. The neighbor says that the patient lives by himself and that this is the first time he has acted in this manner. The patient is calm but has trouble understanding simple directions and is unable to respond promptly to simple questions. Suspecting delirium, the most appropriate first course of action is to: Administer an antipsychotic. Refer for neurological consult. Identify the underlying illness. Order a head computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast. Question A 19-year-old college freshman has been urged by her friends to be evaluated for lethargy, loss of appetite, and hypersomnia over the past 2 weeks. You administer the Beck Depression Inventory (BDI) assessment and she scores a 22. This would indicate: No depression. Mild depression. Moderate depression. Severe depression. Question The healthcare principle that promotes actions that lead to achieving the greatest good for the greatest number is known as: Autonomy. Utilitarianism. Beneficence. Fidelity. Question A 43-year-old man who smokes 1 pack-per-day (PPD) and has an 18 pack-year smoking history presents with a chief complaint of increasing shortness of breath, chronic cough, and sputum production. In considering chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which of the following would most support the diagnosis? FEV₁ >70% predicted. FEV₁ <85% predicted. FEV₁/FVC <0.70. FEV₁ /FVC <1.0. Question A 75-year-old man presents with chief complaints of headache, nausea, and muscle weakness. His creatinine level is 2.1 mg/dL (185.6 μmol/L) and GFR is 30 mL/min/1.73 m 2 . He currently takes a thiazide diuretic for the management of hypertension. Which of the following statements is false regarding the use of diuretics in the elderly? Thiazide diuretics are less effective when creatinine level is ≥1.8 mg/dL (159.1 mol/L). Thiazide diuretic use is an independent risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Loop diuretics are contraindicated when GFR is ≤40 mL/min/1.73 m². Thiazide diuretic use leads to low volume sodium depletion resulting in peripheral vascular resistance (PVR) reduction. Question All of the following persons are eligible for Medicare services except: A 74-year-old ex-smoker with COPD and high income from assets. A 69-year-old undocumented resident in the US with atrial fibrillation. A 62-year-old with a permanent physical disability due to a motor vehicle accident. A 72-year-old permanent legal resident (non-US citizen) with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Question A 35-year-old woman presents with a chief complaint of being unable to close her right eyelid tightly, frown, or smile on the right side. She is otherwise healthy with no significant prior medical history. An appropriate diagnostic test for this patient would be: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Alanine transaminase/aspartate transaminase (ALT/AST) levels. Lyme disease antibody titer. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level. Question A 23-year-old man is admitted after experiencing a seizure. A witness to the seizure described how the patient fell to the ground with rigid extension of the arms and legs that was then followed by a period of jerking movements and loss of consciousness. This best describes which type of seizure? Petit mal. Myoclonic. Tonic-clonic (grand mal). Complex partial. Question A 54-year-old man is being evaluated for pain related to acute bacterial prostatitis. In considering the diagnosis and management, the NP realizes that: Gram-positive organisms are the most common cause of infection. Length of antibiotic therapy is usually 1 week. Perineal pain with defecation is a common complaint. Cephalosporins are first-line therapy. Question A 25-year-old landscaper with a 6 cm abscess on the left upper arm presents one week post incision and drainage for a follow-up appointment. The area is much improved, but has some residual erythema and discomfort. The nurse practitioner correctly interprets that: The healing process is proceeding normally and he should continue to monitor progress. The presence of discomfort one week after incision and drainage suggests residual infection and antibiotics should be started. The wound should be packed with iodoform gauze and irrigated with normal saline twice daily. The patient should be referred for a surgical evaluation. Question The Privacy Rule established by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services in 1996 implemented the requirements for: Electronic medical records at every healthcare institution. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). Expanding Medicare to those <65 years of age who meet certain criteria. Mandatory psychological screening for all Federal employees. Question In the patient diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis, the use of amoxicillin should be avoided due to the risk of: Resistance development. Rash. Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Toxic epidermal necrolysis. Question When initiating therapy with spironolactone for a patient who is also on an ACE inhibitor, you advise the patient to return in 5 days to check which of the following laboratory parameters? Sodium Calcium Potassium Chloride Question A 27-year-old male is rushed to the emergency department after experiencing a series of seizures. He has no history of neurologic disorder. His girlfriend states that he was taking multiple medications for mood disorder but recently stopped taking one of them. The most likely medication the patient discontinued is a: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). Benzodiazepine. Second-generation tricyclic antidepressant. Question When considering an end-of-life decision for a terminally ill person with Alzheimer-type dementia who can no longer communicate, all of the following can be used as an advanced directive except: Testimony from a family member or close friend A living will. A “do not resuscitate” order. A durable power of attorney for healthcare. Question Which of the following types of clinical studies represents the lowest level of evidence used to guide medical decisions? Clinical experience of renowned expert in field. Non-randomized controlled study. Observational study. Case-control study. Question Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes do you expect to find in a person with myocardial ischemia?calcium Pathologic Q wave Tall R wave T wave inversion ST segment elevation Question You see a 62-year-old woman experiencing a painful episode of acute gouty arthritis. All of the following are appropriate treatment choices to relieve her condition except: Naproxen sodium (Aleve ® ). Intraarticular corticosteroid injection. Allopurinol (Aloprim ® ). Colchicine (Colcrys ® ). Question As part of the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005, Medicare will incorporate quality payment adjustments for certain hospital-acquired conditions, including all of the following except: Catheter-associated urinary tract infection. Myocardial ischemia. Pressure ulcers. Deep vein thrombosis. Question In which of the following situations is parental consent usually needed prior to treatment? A 15-year-old requesting information about contraception. A 17-year-old who wants help with anxiety. A 16-year-old requesting treatment for acne vulgaris. An 18-year-old who requires treatment for depression Question A 17-year-old male with intermittent asthma presents for routine follow-up. He explains that he experiences asthma symptoms once or twice each week, usually during physical activity. Symptoms are promptly relieved each time with albuterol per MDI with spacer. He does not report any nighttime awakenings due to his asthma. His ACT score is 24 and vital signs are all within normal limits. According to the NAEPP EPR-3, what is the next step in the management of his asthma? Continued use of SABA on an as needed basis. Initiation of a long-acting beta-agonist. Initiation of low-dose inhaled corticosteroids. Restrict physical activity. Question A 41-year-old woman is diagnosed with hypertension that requires medication. She is otherwise healthy but currently taking drospirenone/ethinyl estradiol (Yasmin ® ) for birth control. Which of the following antihypertensive medications would be least preferred for this patient? Beta-adrenergic antagonist Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor Calcium channel blocker Angiotensin receptor blocker Question A 71-year-old male presents to the emergency department. He is complaining of severe abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant. Diagnostic findings to support a ruptured appendix would include all of the following except: Leukopenia. Fever >102ºF (>38.9ºC). Symptoms lasting more than 48 hours. Absence of bowel sounds. Question A 57-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of numbness of the fingertips and oral irritation. Physical examination reveals pale conjunctiva and a heart murmur. She is otherwise healthy, exercises regularly, has a BMI of 22 kg/m 2 , and she states that she is a vegan. Hemogram results are as follows: -Hg=8.2 g/dL (12–16 g/dL) -Hct=23% (36%–42%) -MCV=135 fL (80–96 fL) -Red blood cell distribution width (RDW)=17% (11%–15%) These findings are most consistent with: Hemolysis. Vitamin B12 deficiency. Iron deficiency. Anemia of chronic disease. Question Which of the following statements is false regarding end-of-life decision-making for a patient that is hopelessly and terminally ill? A durable power of attorney for healthcare can be used to authorize another person to make healthcare decisions. A videotaped or audiotaped discussion with the patient can include advanced directives. Advanced directives are legally binding and recognized in all 50 states. Living wills and do not resuscitate orders are examples of advanced directives. Question You see a 24-year-old woman of Asian ancestry who is being evaluated for a neurologic disorder. A thorough laboratory analysis is conducted and the hemogram results are as follows: -Hemoglobin (Hg)=10.4 g/dL -Hematocrit (Hct)=32% -Mean cell volume (MCV)=71 fL -Red blood cell distribution width (RDW)=13% -Red blood cells (RBC)=5.5 million The most likely condition associated with these hemogram results is: Acute blood loss. Beta thalassemia minor. Iron deficiency anemia. Cooley’s anemia. Question The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 19-year-old male suffering from a severe headache. He has a history of headaches that tend to occur in clusters over a few days. He has unsuccessfully tried several therapeutic modalities. A positive response to which of the following interventions supports the diagnosis of cluster headache? Oxygen therapy. Beta-adrenergic blockade. Tricyclic antidepressant. Dietary reduction of amines. Question A 68-year-old woman who resides in a long-term care facility is being treated for a urinary tract infection. Her medical history includes hypertension, peripheral artery disease, and a 35 pack-year smoking history. During the evaluation, she brings to your attention a painless, pearly nodule on the upper lip. This clinical presentation most likely represents a(n): Squamous cell carcinoma Basal cell carcinoma Actinic keratosis Molluscum contagiosum Question A 23-year-old male patient is evaluated in the early morning hours for nausea with vomiting. He had eaten some food from the fridge the night before that “was probably too old.” The NP suspects acute gastroenteritis and would expect the course of the disease over the next 48–72 hours to involve: Continued clinical evidence of dehydration, even with proper fluid uptake Resolution of vomiting but onset of diarrhea Continued episodes of vomiting but have improved appetite Complete resolution of symptoms and be feeling well Question A 47-year-old man is being evaluated for severe eye pain and sudden onset of reduced visual acuity. The NP suspects acute angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following is most likely to be found on funduscopic examination to support this diagnosis? Hemorrhagic lesions. Low intraocular pressure. Arteriovenous nicking. A deeply-cupped optic disc. Question A 73-year-old man is being evaluated following an episode of dizziness leading to a fall that did not cause any injury. Cardiac and neurologic examination did not reveal the cause of dizziness. In preparation for discharge planning, the patient undergoes a formal balance assessment using which of the following tests? Braden scale. Tinetti assessment. McMurray test . Wintrobe criteria. Question All of the following are required Medicare terms and conditions for paying NP services except: The services are within the NP’s scope of practice as defined by state law. The services performed are those for which a physician would be able to bill Medicare. The services are performed in collaboration with a physician. Separate charges are billed for NP services and facility charges. Question A 21-year-old college student presents with new-onset pain and swelling in the feet and ankles as well as conjunctivitis, oral lesions, and dysuria. She reports that she has had multiple sexual partners and does not use any form of protection. The most important test result to obtain is: Rheumatoid factor Sedimentation rate Urethral cultures Question A 17-year-old male is admitted after experiencing sudden, severe pain in the scrotum during the night. Physical examination reveals swelling of the scrotum and the loss of the cremasteric reflex. His heart rate is 110 bpm, blood pressure 150/80 mm Hg, and temperature 99.8ºF (37.7ºC). This most likely represents: Testicular neoplasia Acute epididymitis Incarcerated hernia Testicular torsion Question You see a 48-year-old man with a chief complaint of pain during urination. Imaging reveals the presence of a kidney stone in the ureter. You consider all of the following management options except: Increased fluid uptake with water or citrus drinks. Alpha blocker use. Thiazide diuretic use. Analgesia use. Question According to the Consolidated Omnibus Reconciliation Act (COBRA), the spouse of an eligible employee will be eligible for COBRA coverage in all of the following circumstances except when the eligible employee: Divorces the spouse. Becomes eligible for Medicare. Has his or her hours reduced. Is terminated for misconduct. Question You see a 14-year-old soccer player with an ankle sprain. Physical examination reveals complete ankle instability, significant swelling, and moderate to severe ecchymosis. You would grade this sprain as: Grade I. Grade II. Grade III. Grade IV Question A 28-year-old male with asthma presents with a chief complaint that he has to use his rescue inhaler multiple times each day. An evaluation reveals that he has moderate-to-severe asthma and requires Step 4 treatment. An appropriate regimen would include: Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) Medium-dose ICS Medium-dose ICS plus a long-acting beta₂-agonist (LABA) High-dose ICS plus LABA plus omalizumab (Xolair ® ) Question A 19-year-old is diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. In order to prevent secondary infections among adults who had close contact with the patient, all of the following are recommended except: Administer appropriate meningococcal vaccine if previously unvaccinated. Prophylaxis with acyclovir (Zovirax ® ). Prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin (Cipro ® ). Prophylaxis with Ceftriaxone (Rocephin ® ). Question You see a 26-year-old man with moderate persistent asthma who is experiencing a severe exacerbation. Which of the following would you most likely expect when evaluating this patient? Crackles. Inspiratory wheeze. Expiratory wheeze. Bradypnea. Question A 62-year-old woman presents in the emergency department complaining of severe toe pain that originated overnight. She has a history of renal disease and is currently taking a thiazide diuretic. Her BMI is 37 kg/m 2 . In considering a diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis, the nurse practitioner knows that the best diagnostic indicator is: Serum uric acid. Joint X-ray. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Analysis of joint aspirate for urate crystals. Question Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for a 57-year-old man with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis and who has type 2 diabetes mellitus, COPD and a beta-lactam allergy? Cephalexin (Keflex ® ). Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin ® ). Trimethoprim with or without sulfamethoxazole (Primsol ® , Bactrim ® ). Levofloxacin (Levaquin ® ) Question While taking the history on a 61-year-old female patient, the nurse practitioner learns that she has a 15-year history of poorly-controlled hypertension. The patient admits that another provider had told her that the high blood pressure had affected her eyes. As a result, the nurse practitioner expects that funduscopic examination will likely reveal: General vessel narrowing Optic disc atrophy Macular degeneration Proliferative retinopathy Question A 28-year-old woman presents who complains of tugging chest pain unrelated to physical activity. She is generally in good health, a non-smoker, has a BMI of 23 kg/m², and denies dyspnea or dizziness. Physical examination reveals a grade 2/6 late systolic murmur that follows a midsystolic click at the 5th intercostal space, mid-clavicular line. An echocardiogram fails to reveal mitral valve tissue redundancy. This clinical presentation is most consistent with: Silent myocardial infarction. Aortic stenosis. Mitral valve prolapse. Atrial septal defect. Question A physician employs an NP to provide services at a satellite acute care clinic. If the physician is never present at the clinic, which of the following statements is true? “Incident to” billing is applicable for the services provided by the NP. The NP services should be billed under the NP’s provider number. Medicare will pay 100% of the physician rate for the NP services. The physician must cosign any documentation of services in order to bill Medicare under the physician’s provider number. Question Which of the following describes the ethical principle of beneficence? The obligation of the healthcare provider to help people in need. The duty of healthcare provider to do no harm. The responsibility of the healthcare provider to treat all in the same fair manner. The right of the competent person to choose a personal plan of life and action.

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2025 Most ear nose and throat conditions that arise in non critical care settings are minor in nature

Assessing the Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat 2025

Most ear, nose, and throat conditions that arise in non-critical care settings are minor in nature. However, subtle symptoms can sometimes escalate into life-threatening conditions that require prompt assessment and treatment. Nurses conducting assessments of the ears, nose, and throat must be able to identify the small differences between life-threatening conditions and benign ones. For instance, if a patient with a sore throat and a runny nose also has inflamed lymph nodes, the inflammation is probably due to the pathogen causing the sore throat rather than a case of throat cancer. With this knowledge and a sufficient patient health history, a nurse would not need to escalate the assessment to a biopsy or an MRI of the lymph nodes but would probably perform a simple strep test. In this Case Study Assignment, you consider case studies of abnormal findings from patients in a clinical setting. You determine what history should be collected from the patients, what physical exams and diagnostic tests should be conducted, and formulate a differential diagnosis with several possible conditions. To Prepare By Day 1 of this week, you will be assigned to a specific case study for this Case Study Assignment. Please see the “Course Announcements” section of the classroom for your assignment from your Instructor. · Also, your Case Study Assignment should be in the Episodic/Focused SOAP Note format rather than the traditional narrative style format. Refer to Chapter 2 of the Sullivan text and the Episodic/Focused SOAP Template in the Week 5 Learning Resources for guidance. Remember that all Episodic/Focused SOAP Notes have specific data included in every patient case. With regard to the case study you were assigned: · Review this week’s Learning Resources and consider the insights they provide. · Consider what history would be necessary to collect from the patient. · Consider what physical exams and diagnostic tests would be appropriate to gather more information about the patient’s condition. How would the results be used to make a diagnosis? · Identify at least five possible conditions that may be considered in a differential diagnosis for the patient. The Assignment: CASE STUDY 4: Focused Thyroid Exam Chantal, a 32-year-old female, comes into your office with complaints of “feeling tired” and “hair falling out”. She has gained 30 pounds in the last year but notes markedly decreased appetite. On ROS, she reports not sleeping well and feels cold all the time. She is still able to enjoy her hobbies and does not believe that she is depressed. Use the Episodic/Focused SOAP Template and create an episodic/focused note about the patient in the case study to which you were assigned using the episodic/focused note template provided in the Week 5 resources. Provide evidence from the literature to support diagnostic tests that would be appropriate for each case. List five different possible conditions for the patient’s differential diagnosis and justify why you selected each. REQUIRED RESOURCES: Ball, J. W., Dains, J. E., Flynn, J. A., Solomon, B. S., & Stewart, R. W. (2019). Seidel’s guide to physical examination: An interprofessional approach (9th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Mosby. · Chapter 11, “Head and Neck” This chapter reviews the anatomy and physiology of the head and neck. The authors also describe the procedures for conducting a physical examination of the head and neck. · Chapter 12, “Eyes” In this chapter, the authors describe the anatomy and function of the eyes. In addition, the authors explain the steps involved in conducting a physical examination of the eyes. · Chapter 13, “Ears, Nose, and Throat” The authors of this chapter detail the proper procedures for conducting a physical exam of the ears, nose, and throat. The chapter also provides pictures and descriptions of common abnormalities in the ears, nose, and throat. Dains, J. E., Baumann, L. C., & Scheibel, P. (2019). Advanced health assessment and clinical diagnosis in primary care (6th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Mosby. . Chapter 15, “Earache” This chapter covers the main questions that need to be asked about the patient’s condition prior to the physical examination as well as how these questions lead to a focused physical examination. Chapter 21, “Hoarseness” This chapter focuses on the most common causes of hoarseness. It provides strategies for evaluating the patient, both through questions and through physical exams. Chapter 25, “Nasal Symptoms and Sinus Congestion” In this chapter, the authors highlight the key questions to ask about the patients symptoms, the key parts of the physical examination, and potential laboratory work that might be needed to provide an accurate diagnosis of nasal and sinus conditions. Chapter 30, “Red Eye” The focus of this chapter is on how to determine the cause of red eyes in a patient, including key symptoms to consider and possible diagnoses. Chapter 32, “Sore Throat” A sore throat is one most common concerns patients describe. This chapter includes questions to ask when taking the patient’s history, things to look for while conducting the physical exam, and possible causes for the sore throat. Chapter 38, “Vision Loss” This chapter highlights the causes of vision loss and how the causes of the condition can be diagnosed. Note: Download the six documents (Student Checklists and Key Points) below, and use them as you practice conducting assessments of the head, neck, eyes, ears, nose, and throat. Ball, J. W., Dains, J. E., Flynn, J. A., Solomon, B. S., & Stewart, R. W. (2019). Head and neck: Student checklist. In Seidel’s guide to physical examination: An interprofessional approach (9th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Mosby. Ball, J. W., Dains, J. E., Flynn, J. A., & Solomon, B. S., & Stewart, R. W. (2019). Head and neck: Key points. In Seidel’s guide to physical examination: An interprofessional approach (9th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Mosby. Ball, J. W., Dains, J. E., Flynn, J. A., Solomon, B. S., & Stewart, R. W. (2019). Eyes: Student checklist. In Seidel’s guide to physical examination: An interprofessional approach (9th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Mosby. Ball, J. W., Dains, J. E., Flynn, J. A., Solomon, B. S., & Stewart, R. W. (2019). Eyes: Key points. In Seidel’s guide to physical examination: An interprofessional approach (9th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Mosby. Ball, J. W., Dains, J. E., Flynn, J. A., Solomon, B. S., & Stewart, R. W. (2019). Ears, nose, and throat: Student checklist. In Seidel’s guide to physical examination: An interprofessional approach (9th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Mosby. Ball, J. W., Dains, J. E., Flynn, J. A., Solomon, B. S., & Stewart, R. W. (2019). Ears, nose, and throat: Key points. In Seidel’s guide to physical examination: An interprofessional approach (9th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Mosby. Colyar, M. R. (2015). Advanced practice nursing procedures. Philadelphia, PA: F. A. Davis. · Chapter 71, “Visual Function Evaluation: Snellen, Illiterate E, Pictorial This section explains the procedural knowledge needed to perform eyes, ears, nose, and mouth procedures. Sullivan, D. D. (2019). Guide to clinical documentation (3rd ed.). Philadelphia, PA: F. A. Davis. · Chapter 2, “The Comprehensive History and Physical Exam” (Previously read in Weeks 1, 3, 4, and 5) Bedell, H. E., & Stevenson, S. B. (2013). Eye movement testing in clinical examination. Vision Research 90, 32–37. doi:10.1016/j.visres.2013.02.001. Retrieved from https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0042698913000217 Rubin, G. S. (2013). Measuring reading performance. Vision Research, 90, 43–51. doi:10.1016/j.visres.2013.02.015. Retrieved from http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0042698913000436 Harmes, K. M., Blackwood, R. A., Burrows, H. L., Cooke, J. M., Harrison, R. V., & Passamani, P. P. (2013). Otitis media: Diagnosis and treatment. American Family Physicians, 88(7), 435–440. Otolaryngology Houston. (2014). Imaging of maxillary sinusitis (X-ray, CT, and MRI). Retrieved from http://www.ghorayeb.com/ImagingMaxillarySinusitis.html This website provides medical images of sinusitis, including X-rays, CT scans, and MRIs (magnetic resonance imaging).

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2025 Choose one of the following case studies from the Bruyere textbook and complete Please post your answers

Hypovolemic shock 2025

Choose one of the following case studies from the Bruyere textbook and complete. Please post your answers, and then reply to two classmates. case study #6 – hypovolemic shock Your initial posting should be 200 to 300 words in length and utilize at least one scholarly source other than the textbook. Please reply to at least two classmates. Replies to classmates should be between 100 and 200 words in length. To properly “thread” your discussion posting, please click on REPLY.

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2025 Mrs Davies is a 70 year old white woman who presented to the emergency department because of a

Discussion Post Answer. Please See Case Study And Answer The 5 Question Using The Data Provided. 2025

Mrs. Davies is a 70-year-old white woman who presented to the emergency department because of a 4-day history of increased shortness of breath and generalized weakness. Mrs. Davies stated that she has been able to do her daily chores at home independently, but for the last few days it was getting difficult for her to get around and that she needed to take frequent breaks because she was short of breath and had no energy. She has a long history of heart failure, diabetes mellitus type 2, and hypertension. She is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI). Subjective Data Has been having headaches on and off, with nausea and dizziness Reported that she hadn’t been taking her medications regularly at home because of ‘forgetfulness’ Has not been urinating a lot Feels ‘puffy’ in her legs and hands Objective Data Physical Examination Blood pressure 178/96, pulse 110, temperature 98.9° F, respirations 24 Alert and oriented to person, place, and time Mild jugular venous distention Fine crackles in bilateral lower lobes Heart rate regular, no murmurs Bowel sounds normoactive and present in all four quadrants 2+ edema bilateral lower extremities and hands Diagnostic Studies Echocardiogram shows decreased left ventricular function Urinalysis: Urine dark yellow and cloudy, protein 28 mg/dL, negative for glucose and ketones, positive for casts, red blood cells and white blood cells 24-hour urine output = 380 mL Laboratory Tests: Hemoglobin 8 g/dL Hematocrit 23.8% RBC 2.57 million/mm3 WBC 4.7 mm3 Sodium 132 mEq/L Potassium 5.2 mEq/L Calcium 9 mg/dL BUN 36 mg/dL Creatinine 4.9 mg/dL BNP 182 pg/mL Question 1 Interpret Mrs. Davies’s laboratory test results and describe their significance. Question 2 What is the most likely cause of Mrs. Davies’s AKI? Question 3 What additional tests, if needed, could be done to determine the cause of AKI? Question 4 What are the priority nursing diagnoses to address the concern of fluid retention? Question 5 What are the priority nursing interventions for these nursing diagnoses?

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2025 Please see Rubric for directionS TOPIC will be SHORTAGE OF PRIMARY CARE PHYSICIANS as I m graduating from nurse

Identification of Healthcare Policy Concern 2025

Please see Rubric for directionS TOPIC will be : SHORTAGE OF PRIMARY CARE PHYSICIANS (as I’m graduating from nurse Practitioner I would like this to be my topic and also give space to talk about the need of passing rules to include NP’s as providing primary care just like physicians). Use ONLY SCHOLARS within 5 years.

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2025 For this assessment you will create a 2 4 page plan proposal for an interprofessional team to collaborate and

Interdisciplinary Plan Proposal 2025

For this assessment you will create a 2-4 page plan proposal for an interprofessional team to collaborate and work toward driving improvements in the organizational issue you identified in the second assessment. The health care industry is always striving to improve patient outcomes and attain organizational goals. Nurses can play a critical role in achieving these goals; one way to encourage nurse participation in larger organizational efforts is to create a culture of ownership and shared responsibility (Berkow et al., 2012). Participation in interdisciplinary teams can also offer nurses opportunities to share their expertise and leadership skills, fostering a sense of ownership and collegiality. You are encouraged to complete the Budgeting for Nurses activity before you develop the plan proposal. The activity consists of seven questions that will allow you the opportunity to check your knowledge of budgeting basics and as well as the value of financial resource management. The information gained from completing this formative will promote success with the Interdisciplinary Plan Proposal. Completing this activity also demonstrates your engagement in the course, requires just a few minutes of your time, and is not graded. Demonstration of Proficiency Competency 1: Explain strategies for managing human and financial resources to promote organizational health. Explain organizational resources, including a financial budget, needed for the plan to be a success and the impacts on those resources if nothing is done, related to the improvements sought by the plan. Competency 2: Explain how interdisciplinary collaboration can be used to achieve desired patient and systems outcomes. Describe an objective and predictions for an evidence-based interdisciplinary plan to achieve a specific objective related to improving patient or organizational outcomes. Explain the collaboration needed by an interdisciplinary team to improve the likelihood of achieving the plan’s objective. Include best practices of interdisciplinary collaboration from the literature. Competency 4: Explain how change management theories and leadership strategies can enable interdisciplinary teams to achieve specific organizational goals. Explain a change theory and a leadership strategy, supported by relevant evidence, that are most likely to help an interdisciplinary team succeed in collaborating and implementing, or creating buy-in for, the project plan. Competency 5: Apply professional, scholarly, evidence-based communication strategies to impact patient, interdisciplinary team, and systems outcomes. Communicate the interdisciplinary plan with writing that is clear, logically organized, and professional, with correct grammar and spelling, using current APA style. Reference Berkow, S., Workman, J., Aronson, S., Stewart, J., Virkstis, K., & Kahn, M. (2012). Strengthening frontline nurse investment in organizational goals. JONA: The Journal of Nursing Administration, 42 (3), 165–169. Professional Context This assessment will allow you to describe a plan proposal that includes an analysis of best practices of interprofessional collaboration, change theory, leadership strategies, and organizational resources with a financial budget that can be used to solve the problem identified through the interview you conducted in the prior assessment. Scenario Having reviewed the information gleaned from your professional interview and identified the issue, you will determine and present an objective for an interdisciplinary intervention to address the issue. Note: You will not be expected to implement the plan during this course. However, the plan should be evidence-based and realistic within the context of the issue and your interviewee’s organization. Instructions For this assessment, use the context of the organization where you conducted your interview to develop a viable plan for an interdisciplinary team to address the issue you identified. Define a specific patient or organizational outcome or objective based on the information gathered in your interview. The goal of this assessment is to clearly lay out the improvement objective for your planned interdisciplinary intervention of the issue you identified. Additionally, be sure to further build on the leadership, change, and collaboration research you completed in the previous assessment. Look for specific, real-world ways in which those strategies and best practices could be applied to encourage buy-in for the plan or facilitate the implementation of the plan for the best possible outcome. Using the Interdisciplinary Plan Proposal Template [DOCX] will help you stay organized and concise. As you complete each section of the template, make sure you apply APA format to in-text citations for the evidence and best practices that inform your plan, as well as the reference list at the end. Additionally, be sure that your plan addresses the following, which corresponds to the grading criteria in the scoring guide. Please study the scoring guide carefully so you understand what is needed for a distinguished score. Describe an objective and predictions for an evidence-based interdisciplinary plan to achieve a specific goal related to improving patient or organizational outcomes. Explain a change theory and a leadership strategy, supported by relevant evidence, that is most likely to help an interdisciplinary team succeed in collaborating and implementing, or creating buy-in for, the project plan. Explain the collaboration needed by an interdisciplinary team to improve the likelihood of achieving the plan’s objective. Include best practices of interdisciplinary collaboration from the literature. Explain organizational resources, including a financial budget, needed for the plan to succeed and the impacts on those resources if the improvements described in the plan are not made. Communicate the interdisciplinary plan, with writing that is clear, logically organized, and professional, with correct grammar and spelling, using current APA style. Additional Requirements Length of submission: Use the provided template. Remember that part of this assessment is to make the plan easy to understand and use, so it is critical that you are clear and concise. Most submissions will be 2 to 4 pages in length. Be sure to include a reference page at the end of the plan. Number of references: Cite a minimum of 3 sources of scholarly or professional evidence that support your central ideas. Resources should be no more than 5 years old. APA formatting: Make sure that in-text citations and reference list follow current APA style. Note : Faculty may use the Writing Feedback Tool when grading this assessment. The Writing Feedback Tool is designed to provide you with guidance and resources to develop your writing based on five core skills. You will find writing feedback in the Scoring Guide for the assessment, once your work has been evaluated. Grading Rubric: 1. Describe an objective and predictions for an evidence-based interdisciplinary plan to achieve a specific goal related to improving patient or organizational outcomes. Passing Grade: Describes an objective and predictions for an evidence-based interdisciplinary plan to achieve a specific goal related to improving patient or organizational outcomes, including methods from the literature that may be used to determine success. 2. Explain a change theory and a leadership strategy, supported by relevant evidence, that is most likely to help an interdisciplinary team succeed in collaborating and implementing, or creating buy-in for, the project plan. Passing Grade: Explains a change theory and a leadership strategy, supported by relevant evidence, that is most likely to help an interdisciplinary team succeed in collaborating and implementing, or creating buy-in for, the project plan, providing real-world examples relevant to the health care organization that is the context for the plan. 3. Explain the collaboration needed by an interdisciplinary team to improve the likelihood of achieving the plan’s objective, including best practices of interdisciplinary collaboration from the literature. Passing Grade: Explains the collaboration needed by an interdisciplinary team to improve the likelihood of achieving the plan’s objective, including best practices of interdisciplinary collaboration from the literature. Provides real-world examples relevant to the health care organization that is the context for the plan. 4. Explain organizational resources, including a financial budget, needed for the plan to succeed and the impacts on those resources if nothing is done to make the improvements sought by the plan. Passing Grade: Explains organizational resources, including a financial budget, needed for the plan to succeed and the impacts on those resources if nothing is done to make the improvements sought by the plan. Provides real-world examples relevant to the health care organization that is the context for the plan. 5. Communicate the interdisciplinary plan with writing that is clear, logically organized, and professional, with correct grammar and spelling, using current APA style. Passing Grade: Communicates the interdisciplinary plan with writing that is clear, logically organized, and professional, with correct grammar and spelling, using current APA style without errors.

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2025 PLEASE FOLLOW THE INSTRUCTIONS BELOW 4 REFERENCES ZERO PLAGIARISM TOPIC Anxiety Disorder Psychiatric notes are a way

Focused SOAP Note and Patient Case Presentation 2025

PLEASE FOLLOW THE INSTRUCTIONS BELOW 4 REFERENCES ZERO PLAGIARISM TOPIC; Anxiety Disorder- Psychiatric notes are a way to reflect on your practicum experiences and connect them to the didactic learning you gain from your NRNP courses. Focused SOAP notes, such as the ones required in this practicum course, are often used in clinical settings to document patient care For this Assignment, you will document information about a patient that you examined during the last three weeks, using the Focused SOAP Note Template provided. You will then use this note to develop and record a case presentation for this patient. To Prepare Review this week’s Learning Resources and consider the insights they provide. Also review the Kaltura Media Uploader resource in the left-hand navigation of the classroom for help creating your self-recorded Kaltura video. Select a patient of any age (either a child or an adult) that you examined during the last 3 weeks. Create a Focused SOAP Note on this patient using the template provided in the Learning Resources. There is also a completed Focused SOAP Note Exemplar provided to serve as a guide to assignment expectations. Please Note: All SOAP notes must be signed, and each page must be initialed by your Preceptor. Note: Electronic signatures are not accepted. When you submit your note, you should include the complete focused SOAP note as a Word document and PDF/images of each page that is initialed and signed by your Preceptor. You must submit your SOAP note using SafeAssign. Note: If both files are not received by the due date, faculty will deduct points per the Walden Grading Policy. Then, based on your SOAP note of this patient, develop a video case study presentation. Take time to practice your presentation before you record. Include at least five scholarly resources to support your assessment, diagnosis, and treatment planning. Ensure that you have the appropriate lighting and equipment to record the presentation. The Assignment Record yourself presenting the complex case study for your clinical patient. In your presentation: Dress professionally with a lab coat and present yourself in a professional manner. Display your photo ID at the start of the video when you introduce yourself. Ensure that you do not include any information that violates the principles of HIPAA (i.e., don’t use the patient’s name or any other identifying information). Present the full complex case study. Include chief complaint; history of present illness; any pertinent past psychiatric, substance use, medical, social, family history; most recent mental status exam; current psychiatric diagnosis including differentials that were ruled out; and plan for treatment and management. Report normal diagnostic results as the name of the test and “normal” (rather than specific value). Abnormal results should be reported as a specific value. Be succinct in your presentation, and do not exceed 8 minutes. Specifically address the following for the patient, using your SOAP note as a guide: Subjective: What details did the patient provide regarding their chief complaint and symptomology to derive your differential diagnosis? What is the duration and severity of their symptoms? How are their symptoms impacting their functioning in life? Objective: What observations did you make during the psychiatric assessment? Assessment: Discuss their mental status examination results. What were your differential diagnoses? Provide a minimum of three possible diagnoses and why you chose them. List them from highest priority to lowest priority. What was your primary diagnosis and why? Describe how your primary diagnosis aligns with DSM-5 diagnostic criteria and supported by the patient’s symptoms. Plan: What was your plan for psychotherapy? What was your plan for treatment and management, including alternative therapies? Include pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic treatments, alternative therapies, and follow-up parameters, as well as a rationale for this treatment and management plan. Also be sure to include at least one health promotion activity and one patient education strategy. Reflection notes: What would you do differently with this patient if you could conduct the session again? If you are able to follow up with your patient, explain whether these interventions were successful and why or why not. If you were not able to conduct a follow up, discuss what your next intervention would be.

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2025 Captain of the Ship Project Obsessive Compulsive Disorders In earlier weeks you were introduced to

Captain of the Ship Project 2025

“Captain of the Ship” Project – Obsessive-Compulsive Disorders In earlier weeks, you were introduced to the concept of the “captain of the ship.” In this Assignment, you become the “captain of the ship” as you provide treatment recommendations and identify medical management, community support resources, and follow-up plans for a client with an obsessive-compulsive disorder. Learning Objectives Students will: · Recommend psychopharmacologic treatments based on therapeutic endpoints for clients with obsessive-compulsive disorders · Recommend psychotherapy based on therapeutic endpoints for clients with obsessive-compulsive disorders · Identify medical management needs for clients with obsessive-compulsive disorders · Identify community support resources for clients with obsessive-compulsive disorders · Recommend follow-up plans for clients with depression disorders To prepare for this Assignment: · Select an adult or older adult client with an obsessive-compulsive disorder you have seen in your practicum. In 3–4 pages, write a treatment plan for your client in which you do the following: · Describe the HPI and clinical impression for the client. · Recommend psychopharmacologic treatments and describe specific and therapeutic endpoints for your psychopharmacologic agent. (This should relate to HPI and clinical impression.) · Recommend psychotherapy choices (individual, family, and group) and specific therapeutic endpoints for your choices. · Identify medical management needs, including primary care needs, specific to this client. · Identify community support resources (housing, socioeconomic needs, etc.) and community agencies that are available to assist the client. · Recommend a plan for follow-up intensity and frequency and collaboration with other providers. · Remember to include Introduction and Conclusion Learning Resources Required Readings Sadock, B. J., Sadock, V. A., & Ruiz, P. (2014). Kaplan & Sadock’s synopsis of psychiatry: Behavioral sciences/clinical psychiatry (11th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer. Chapter 10, “Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders” (pp. 418–436) Gabbard, G. O. (2014). Gabbard’s treatment of psychiatric disorders (5th ed.). Washington, DC: American Psychiatric Publications. Chapter 21, “Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder” American Psychiatric Association. (2013). Diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author. “Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders” Required Media Bruce, T. & Jongsma, A. (Producers). (n.d.) Evidence-based treatment planning for obsessive compulsive disorder [Video file]. Mill Valley, CA: Psychotherapy.net.

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2025 No Plegarism please assignment will be checked with Turnitin SOAP Note Section I

MN552 SOAP Note with Genogram 2025

No Plegarism please, assignment will be checked with Turnitin. SOAP Note Section I and Genogram Please select a volunteer friend or family member to interview and gather data to complete this Assignment. This section of the SOAP note will include the chief complaint, history of present illness, and family/social/personal history data. Click here for the written guide for this Assignment. The guide will assist you in gathering subjective data in an organized, systematic manner to prevent omission of important components of the health history. Make sure you address all content as noted in the written guide. Include the genogram together with this Assignment as one document. You may search the Web to locate a suitable genogram diagram to input data. Only include three generations in the genogram depiction.

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2025 Question 1 A patient asks the nurse practitioner about food sources such as soybeans and soy

Walden NURS6521 Week 11 Quiz 2017 2025

Question 1 A patient asks the nurse practitioner about food sources such as soybeans and soy products . The nurse practitioner understands that these foods are considered A) phytoestrogens. B) monotherapy. C) taboo. D) inappropriate Question 2 A 12-year-old boy is being discharged from the hospital after major surgery . The boy will be taking two medications at home for an extended period . The nurse who is discharging the patient should provide medication teaching specifically to A) the mother regarding why the boy needs to take the medications. B) both the boy and his mother regarding all medication issued. C) the boy by telling him not to worry about the medications and to take them as directed D) The mother and be sure to reinforce the need to force the medications, if her sondoes not want to take them Question 3 A 15-year-old boy who has been taking dextroamphetamine for the treatment of ADHD has been experiencing a depressed mood and a sense of hopelessness . He confides in the school nurse that he has begun taking his stepfather’s antidepressant to improve his mood . After immediately phoning the boy’s stepfather, the nurse learns that the drug in question is phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) . The nurse should recognize that this combination of drugs creates a serious risk of what health problem? A) Cardiac dysrhythmia B) Hypertensive crisis C) Nephrotoxicity D) Hypokalemia Question 4 A child is admitted to the burn unit with second and third degree burns on both arms and part of his or her face . When administering topical medications to the burned areas, the nurse should A) cool the medication prior to administration. B) use sterile technique when applying the medication. C) allow the child to apply the medication if possible. D) use clean technique only when applying the medication. Question 5 A patient is being seen in the emergency department for a sprained ankle and is given a drug to relieve pain . When a second dose of the pain medication is given, the patient develops redness of the skin, itching, and swelling at the site of injection of the drug . The most likely cause of this response is A) a hepatotoxic response. B) an idiosyncratic response. C) a paradoxical response. D) an allergic response. Question 6 A 5-year-old boy needs an IM injection . The least painful and most effective injection site would be the A) deltoid muscle. B) rectus femoris muscle. C) ventrogluteal muscle. D) dorsogluteal muscle. Question 7 A patient reports to a clinic with complaints of breast tenderness, a right lumpy breast, and no breast discharge . The breast tenderness occurs primarily during her menstrual cycle . The nurse practitioner probably suspects A) breast cancer B) PMS C) pain in the heart D) cancerous breast tenderness Question 8 A 29-year-old woman who is morbidly obese has recently begun a comprehensive, medically-supervised program of weight reduction . Prior to adding dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) to her regimen, the patient should be questioned about her intake of A) alcohol. B) trans fat. C) caffeine. D) grapefruit juice. Question 9 A nurse is caring for a 10-year-old boy who complains of chronic headaches . His mother reports that she gives him Tylenol at least three times a day . Which of the following will the nurse work with the physician to evaluate? A) Renal function B) Hepatic function C) Respiratory function D) Cardiac function Question 10 A 21-year-old female has a history of irregular menses . She recently became sexually active, and would like to begin taking oral contraceptives (OCs) . The nurse practitioner recognizes that most likely this patient would benefit from taking which category of OCs . A) Monophasic B) Triphasic OC C) Ortho Tri-Cyclen D) Biphasic OC Question 11 A nurse who provides care on a pediatric medicine unit has conducted a medication reconciliation of a recently-admitted patient . In light of the fact that the child takes methylphenidate (Ritalin), the nurse is justified in considering a history of what health problem? A) Anxiety B) Respiratory depression C) Obesity D) ADHD Question 12 A nurse working in a cancer center is preparing to administer medication to a 5-year-old child . The nurse will calculate the drug dosage by using A) body surface area. B) weight. C) age in months. D) age in years. Question 13 A 13-year-old female took a weight loss drug that activated the sympathetic nervous system . Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect? A) Decreased myocardial contraction B) Decreased heart rate C) Increased cardiac conduction D) Increased intranodal conduction time Question 14 A 6-month-old child has developed skin irritation due to an allergic reaction . He has been prescribed a topical skin ointment . The nurse will consider which of the following before administering the drug? A) That the infant’s skin has greater permeability than that of an adult B) That there is less body surface area to be concerned about C) That there is decreased absorption rates of topical drugs in infants D) That there is a lower concentration of water in an infant’s body compared with an adult Question 15 A nurse is providing patient education to a 13-year-old girl who was just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus . Which of the following statements by the patient will alert the nurse that special instructions regarding insulin are necessary? A) “I walk two blocks to school every day.” B) “I am on the middle school track team.” C) “We live in a two-story house.” D) “My mother is going to give me my insulin.” Question 16 A nurse who provides care on a pediatric unit of a hospital is aware that the potential for harm as a result of drug errors is higher among infants and children than adults . This fact is primarily due to A) the inability of infants and children and describe symptoms of adverse drug reactions. B) increased body surface area relative to body volume in infants and children. C) increased heart rate and subsequently rapid drug distribution among infants and children. D) immature liver and kidney function in infants and children. Question 17 A nurse practitioner orders 150 mg of oral fluconazole for a patient with vulvovaginal candidiasis . The patient should expect to take medication A) for 20 days. B) once a day. C) every day until the infection is gone. D) for 30 days. Question 18 To which of the following patients would a medication nurse most likely administer caffeine as part of the treatment plan? A) A preterm neonate who has apnea B) A 34-year-old woman with a diagnosis of gastric ulcerations C) A school-age child with severe ADHD D) A 52-year-old man with narcolepsy Question 19 A nurse works at a weight management clinic . To which of the following overweight patients could the nurse safely administer dextroamphetamine? A) A 38-year-old Caucasian woman with glaucoma B) A 60-year-old African-American man who experiences angina C) A 48-year-old Caucasian man who has adult-onset diabetes D) A 28-year-old African-American woman with hyperthyroidism Question 20 A 3-year-old boy has developed otitis media and requires antibiotics . In order to increase the chance that the boy will take his prescribed medication, the nurse should A) teach the boy about the fact that he will feel much better after he takes his medications. B) have the mother hold the child firmly and sooth him while the drugs are administered. C) offer a choice between liquid and chewable medications, if possible. D) insert a central intravenous line. Question 21 The recommended treatment for trichomoniasis is A) Flagyl. B) Diflucan. C) Meclizine. D) Amoxicillan Question 22 A school nurse has been teaching high school students about the risks associated with marijuana use . However, the nurse has been met with considerable skepticism on the part of students, most of whom believe that marijuana is a benign drug . Which of the following teaching points should the nurse provide? A) “Most people don’t know that marijuana can be just as addictive as heroin or cocaine over time.” B) “Marijuana can easily interact with other drugs and cause potentially fatal reactions.” C) “Every year, thousands of Americans end up in emergency departments with marijuana overdoses.” D) “Smoking marijuana is just as bad, or worse, for your lungs as smoking cigarettes.” Question 23 A nurse is going to administer medication to an infant using a medicine dropper . The best method is to open the child’s mouth by gently squeezing the cheeks and placing the drops A) at the back of the mouth. B) in the buccal pouch. C) under the tongue. D) on top of the tongue. Question 24 A nurse is obtaining baseline physical data from a 7-year-old patient who is to be started on dextroamphetamine for ADHD . After obtaining vital signs, height, and weight, the nurse will prepare the patient for an A) electrocardiogram (ECG). B) electromyelogram (EMG). C) electroencephalogram (EEG). D) electrophysiologic study (EPS). Question 25 A 10-year-old boy is taking dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) daily for ADHD . At each clinic visit, the nurse’s priority assessment would be A) height and weight. B) Vision. C) body temperature. D) blood pressure. Question 26 A 7-year-old child has been taking tetracycline for a bacterial infection . The nurse will be sure to inform the parents that this drug could cause A) orange-tinged urine. B) staining of permanent teeth. C) sleep deprivation. D) deep muscle pain. Question 27 A nurse is administering drugs to a 10-year-old child who has multiple health problems . The child is underweight and is on a special diet . Which of the following will the nurse consider when planning for the best absorption of the prescribed drugs? (Select all that apply . ) A) Age B) Weight C) Disease process D) Diet E) Route of administration ACDE Question 28 The clinical nurse educator who oversees the emergency department in a children’s hospital has launched an awareness program aimed at reducing drug errors . What measure addresses the most common cause of incorrect doses in the care of infants and children? A) Having nurses check their math calculations with a colleague before administering a drug. B) Ensuring that a full assessment takes place no more than 30 minutes before giving a drug. C) Recording drug administration in both the nurse’s notes and the medication administration record (MAR) D) Avoiding intravenous administration of drugs whenever possible. Question 29 A 15-year-old boy has been diagnosed with bone cancer after several months of fatigue and pain . What question should the nurse include in an assessment when trying to minimize the potential for adverse drug reactions? A) “Do you ever use alcohol or drugs?” B) “How much do you weigh?” C) “On a scale of zero to ten, what level of pain is acceptable to you?” D) “Did Tylenol or other over-the-counter pain remedies ever relieve your pain?” Question 30 A 35-year-old woman is on a weight-loss program and is to begin taking sibutramine (Meridia) . After baseline physical data are obtained, the nurse will assess the patient’s childbearing potential . The nurse will inform the patient that during sibutramine therapy she should A) abstain from sex. B) obtain a pap smear . C) use adequate contraception. D) take a pregnancy test every month. Question 31 A 16-year-old boy is prescribed cromolyn sodium nasal spray to treat a nasal allergy . To maximize the therapeutic effects of the drug, which of the following will the nurse include in instructions to the patient? A) Take the drug on a full stomach B) Avoid high noise levels C) Take the drug for one full week before coming in contact with allergens D) Drink plenty of fluids. Question 32 A 19-year-old patient reports to a clinic with vaginal discharge with a foul odor . A microscopic exam reveals trichomonas vaginalis . The nurse practitioner is aware that A) trichomoniasis is an incurable disease. B) trichomoniasis discharge is typically thin and clear. C) asymptomatic women are diagnosed with trichomoniasis by a routine pap smear. D) it is unusual to have an odor with trichomoniasis Question 33 A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a minor ailment and is to be administered medications at home for 2 weeks . The child lives with his mother, grandmother, and four other children between the ages of 14 months and 7 years . The home health nurse is asked to assess the home environment to determine if it is appropriate for the child to take his medication at home . Which of the following will have the greatest impact on the nurse’s assessment? A) The mother and grandmother’s understanding about the drugs B) How clean the house is C) The health status of the other children D) Where the medications will be stored Question 34 A nurse is having difficulty administering a bitter drug to a 5-year-old child . The nurse should A) have the parent gently force the child’s mouth open. B) give the drug in a pill form. C) involve the child in a play therapy session, and then tell the child that the medicine is candy. D) offer the child a flavored ice chip or ice pop prior to administering the drug. Question 35 A 22-year-old woman has given birth to an infant who exhibits the signs and symptoms of maternal cocaine use during pregnancy . These signs and symptoms are a result of what pathophysiological effect of opioid use during pregnancy? A) Changes in blood chemistry as a result of nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity B) Impaired maternal nutrition as a result of drug use C) Vasoconstriction leading to reduced placental blood flow D) Hypoxia as a result of a prolonged second stage of labor Question 36 A preterm neonate received caffeine for the treatment of apnea . The nurse should monitor the neonate for which of the following? A) Bloody stools B) Bradycardia C) Constipation D) Hypoglycemia Question 37 A 30-year-old man with a BMI of 59 has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus . In light of the man’s lack of success with weight loss programs in the past, his care provider has prescribed sibutramine (Meridia) . What instructions should the nurse consequently provide to this patient? A) “Take this drug once each day on an empty stomach.” B) “It’s best to take a dose of sibutramine after each meal.” C) “This drug will help you to lose weight without having to exercise or change your normal diet.” D) “Take a dose when you feel like you are tempted to binge on food.” Question 38 A nurse practitioner orders a single dose of 2 g Metronidazole orally . How many milligrams will the patient receive in one dose? A) 1000 mg B) 2000 mg C) 3000 mg D) 4000 mg Question 39 A nurse is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old child suffering from angina why nitroglycerin patches for chest pain would not be appropriate . Which of the following will the nurse include in an explanation? A) A child has an erratic blood flow from an immature peripheral circulation, which increases drug absorption, causing an increase in adverse effects. B) A child’s gastric pH is decreased, causing less of the drug to be absorbed from the subcutaneous skin, therefore producing more adverse effects. C) A child has a greater body surface area, creating greater permeability resulting in an increase in absorption of topical agents, which may result in more adverse effects. D) A child has a smaller body surface area, resulting in an increase in topical absorption, which can cause more adverse effects. Question 40 An immunocompromised 7-year-old child was recently discharged home with a peripherally-inserted central line (PIC line) for home antibiotic therapy . He has now been brought to the emergency department by his mother and father with signs and symptoms of line sepsis . Upon questioning, the mother states that she has been removing the PIC dressing daily and washing the site with warm water and a cloth . What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation? A) Caregiver Role Strain B) Ineffective Family Therapeutic Regimen Management C) Delayed Growth and Development D) Knowledge Deficit

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