Walden NURS6521 Week 9 Quiz 2017 2025

Question 1 A nurse educator who coordinates the staff education on an oncology unit is conducting an inservice on targeted therapies. What potential benefit of targeted therapies should the nurse highlight in this education session? A) Targeted therapies achieve the therapeutic benefits of traditional chemotherapy with no risk of adverse effects. B) Targeted therapies have the potential to provide prophylactic protection against neoplasia in high-risk individuals. C) Targeted therapies are significantly more cost-effective than traditional chemotherapeutic drugs. D) Targeted therapies have the potential to damage cancerous cells while leaving normal body cells less affected. Question 2 An oncology nurse is aware of the risks for injury that exist around the preparation, transportation, and administration of chemotherapeutic agents. In order to reduce these risks of injury, the nurse should take which of the following actions? A) Dispose of intravenous lines used for chemotherapy administration in a covered trash can in the patient’s room. B) Use an IV system for administration that includes needles to reduce the risk of accidental spills. C) Prime the IV tubing with an approved IV solution rather than with the drug itself. D) Encourage patients who have been receiving chemotherapy to use a bedside commode rather than a toilet. Question 3 A patient has just received her first dose of imatinib and the nurse on the oncology unit is amending the patient’s care plan accordingly. What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in light of this addition to the patient’s drug regimen? A) Risk for Infection related to bone marrow suppression B) Risk for Acute Confusion related to adverse neurological effects of imatinib C) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity related to exaggerated inflammatory response D) Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to changes in osmotic pressure Question 4 A nurse has administered filgrastim to a diverse group of patients in recent months. Which of the following patients should the nurse observe for extremely elevated white blood cell counts following administration of the drug? A) A 19-year-old male receiving radiotherapy B) A 25-year-old female with a diagnosis of congenital neutropenia C) A 39-year-old female with a nonmyeloid malignancy D) A 47-year-old male with aplastic anemia Question 5 A patient with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) will imminently begin a course of treatment with rituximab. In order to minimize the risk of adverse effects, what strategy for administration will be adopted? A) Admitting the patient to the intensive care unit in anticipation of the initial bolus of the drug B) Administering diphenhydramine 30 minutes prior to the initial dose of rituximab C) Administering the drug by slow infusion to two peripheral IV sites simultaneously D) Administering the initial doses by slow infusion while observing for adverse reactions Question 6 A 45-year-old woman with acute leukemia is going to begin chemotherapy with vincristine. The nurse is aware that vincristine must always be administered A) at a rapid infusion rate. B) at a slow infusion rate. C) through an IV line primed with vincristine. D) through a central line. Question 7 Mr. Singh is a 66-year-old man who is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of lung cancer that has metastasized to his liver. In an effort to prevent infection, Mr. Singh has been prescribed filgrastim (Neupogen). Which of the nurse’s following assessment questions most directly addresses a common adverse effect of filgrastim? A) “Have you noticed any bleeding in your gums or cheeks?” B) “Do you feel like you’re having any pain in your bones?” C) “Are you experiencing any waves of cool, clammy skin?” D) “Have you had any shortness of breath lately?” Question 8 A 67-year-old man who is being treated for prostate cancer is taking epoetin alfa. The nurse will instruct the patient to A) stop taking the drug after a 2-week period. B) schedule an appointment to measure hemoglobin twice a week for at least 2 to 6 weeks. C) schedule an appointment to check if the patient has a high WBC count. D) begin taking a calcium channel blocker to treat hypertension, which usually develops as an adverse effect of epoetin alfa therapy. Question 9 A male patient is receiving heparin by continuous intravenous infusion. The nurse will instruct the patient and family members to report which of the following should it occur? A) A skin rash B) Sudden occurrence of sleepiness and drowsiness C) Dizziness D) Presence of blood in urine or stools abcd Question 10 A nurse is caring for a 64-year-old female patient who is receiving IV heparin and reports bleeding from her gums. The nurse checks the patient’s laboratory test results and finds that she has a very high aPTT. The nurse anticipates that which of the following drugs may be ordered? A) Coumadin B) Alteplase C) Ticlopidine D) Protamine sulfate Question 11 A nurse has been assigned to a 55-year-old woman who has a malignant brain tumor. The patient is receiving her first dose of carmustine. It will be critical for the nurse to observe for which of the following? A) Nausea and vomiting B) Respiratory difficulty C) Inability to drink fluids for 6 hours D) Reddish urine Question 12 A nurse is assessing a patient who has chronic lymphoblastic myelogenous leukemia. The treatment plan includes hydroxyurea (Hydrea). The nurse will assess the patient for which of the following? A) Diabetes mellitus B) Hypertension C) Leukopenia D) Hypoglycemia Question 13 A patient’s current course of cancer treatment involves the administration of a conjugated monoclonal antibody. What characteristic of the drug is specified by the fact that it is classified as a conjugated drug? A) The drug is derived from nonhuman sources. B) The targeted therapy is combined with another substance that causes cell death. C) The targeted therapy is combination of a monoclonal antibody, a kinase inhibitor, and an inorganic cytotoxin. D) The drug is able to adapt its pharmacokinetics to the etiology of the patient’s cancer. Question 14 An oncology nurse is reviewing the pathophysiology of cancer and is discussing with a colleague the factors that contribute to the success or failure of a patient’s chemotherapy. Which of the following cancerous cells is most susceptible to the effects of chemotherapeutic drugs? A) Cells with a long generation time B) Cells that lack contact inhibition C) Cells that have a rapid mitotic rate D) Cells that lack a blood supply Question 15 A patient receiving high-dose cisplatin therapy exhibits symptoms of hypomagnesemia. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to help offset the magnesium losses from the cisplatin therapy? A) Consuming dairy products B) Consuming chocolates C) Drinking 2 to 3 liters of fluid a day D) Consuming potassium-rich foods Question 16 An older adult woman has been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) and her care team has identified potential benefits of imatinib. Which of the following characteristics of this patient’s current health status may preclude the use of imatinib? A) The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus that is controlled using diet and oral antihyperglycemics. B) The patient has chronic heart failure resulting in significant peripheral edema. C) The patient experienced a mild ischemic stroke several years ago and had transient ischemic attacks last year. D) The patient had a total knee arthroplasty several months earlier. Question 17 A female patient is prescribed oprelvekin therapy to treat thrombocytopenia. Which of the following should the nurse continuously monitor to determine the efficacy and duration of the oprelvekin therapy? A) Weight gain B) Platelet count C) Red and white blood cell count D) Cardiac arrhythmias Question 18 During ongoing assessment of a patient receiving 5-FU therapy, the nurse finds the patient’s platelet count to be 92,000 cells/mm3. The nurse should do which of the following? A) Consult the prescriber for an increase in dosage B) Consult the prescriber for a decrease in dosage C) Consult the prescriber for discontinuation of the drug D) Continue the therapy as prescribed Question 19 A nurse has been assigned to a female patient who is to begin chemotherapy. The nurse will initiate the prescribed oprelvekin therapy A) 6 to 24 hours after chemotherapy. B) 2 days after chemotherapy. C) 6 days after chemotherapy. D) 10 days after chemotherapy. Question 20 A patient with a recent diagnosis of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is discussing treatment options with his care team.What aspect of the patient’s condition would contraindicate the use of cyclophosphamide for the treatment of leukemia? A) The patient has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes and takes oral antihyperglycemics. B) The patient has had a history of nonadherence to medical treatment. C) The patient’s bone marrow function is significantly depressed. D) The patient has decreased renal function. Question 21 A female patient has follicular non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and is receiving thalidomide (Thalomid). It will be most important for the nurse to monitor this patient for which of the following? A) Angina B) Fever C) Chills and rigors D) Bleeding Question 22 When planning care for a patient who is receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for a nonmyeloid malignancy, the nurse should formulate which of the following patient outcomes? (Select all that apply.) A) The patient will not develop an infection. B) The patient will not experience bone pain. C) The patient will be able to self-administer filgrastim at home. D) The patient will not develop febrile neutropenia. E) The patient will not retain fluid. Question 23 A nurse is to use a single-dose 1 mL vial to administer 0.5 mL of epoetin alfa to a 39-year-old woman who is being treated for chemotherapy-induced anemia. Which of the following will the nurse do with the unused portion of the drug? A) Refrigerate the medication for a future use. B) Discard the unused portion of the drug. C) Store the medication in the drug cart for the next dose. D) Put the medication in the freezer compartment of the refrigerator. Question 24 nurse is discussing oprelvekin therapy with a male patient. Which of the following will the nurse tell the patient is the most common adverse effect of the drug? A) Medullary bone pain B) Papilledema C) Fluid retention/weight gain D) Atrial arrhythmia Question 25 A patient with chronic heart failure has begun treatment with epoetin alfa, which she will receive in her own home from a home health nurse. The nurse should teach the patient to supplement this treatment with a diet that is high in A) iron-rich foods such as beans and leafy green vegetables. B) complex carbohydrates and vegetable-source proteins. C) calcium, such as dairy products, fish and vegetables. D) protein and low in carbohydrates. Question 26 A nurse is administering rituximab to a patient via the IV route. The nurse will set the IV pump at 50 mg/hour for the first half hour of the initial infusion. If there are not apparent reactions after 30 minutes of the infusion, the nurse will increase the dosage every 30 minutes by 50 mg/hour until the maximum infusion rate reaches which of the following? A) 250 mg/hour B) 300 mg/hour C) 400 mg/hour D) 500 mg/hour Question 27 A 62-year-old patient taking tamoxifen exhibits increased bone and tumor pain along with a local disease flare. The nurse interprets this as an indication of which of the following? A) A hypersensitivity reaction B) The tumor responding to treatment C) Nephrotoxic effects of tamoxifen D) Cardiomyopathy Question 28 A male patient is receiving rituximab therapy for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Which of the following would be a priority nursing intervention to reduce the risk for cytotoxicity and tumor lysis syndrome? A) Ensure that the patient maintains a normal breathing pattern. B) Ensure that the patient maintains a normal fluid and electrolyte balance. C) Protect the patient from exposure to infections. D) Monitor the patient for deterioration in renal function. Question 29 A patient with a diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukemia has met with her oncologist, who has recommended treatment with the kinase inhibitor imatinib. What route of administration should the nurse explain to the patient? A) Daily intramuscular injections throughout the course of treatment B) Peripheral IV administration three times a day for 7 to 10 days C) Weekly IV infusions over 6 to 8 hours through a central line D) Oral administration of imatinib in a home setting Question 30 A 60-year-old patient experienced a sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath and was subsequently diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism in the emergency department. The patient has been started on an intravenous heparin infusion. How does this drug achieve therapeutic effect? A) By promoting the rapid excretion of vitamin K by the gastrointestinal mucosa B) By inhibiting the action of vitamin K at its sites of action C) By inhibiting platelet aggregation on vessel walls and promoting fibrinolysis D) By inactivating clotting factors and thus stopping the coagulation cascade Question 31 A male patient has been on long-term bicalutamide (Casodex) therapy. In order to assess adverse effects of the drug therapy, the nurse will closely monitor which of the following? A) Visual function B) Blood counts C) Pap test results D) Liver function Question 32 Intravenous carmustine has been prescribed for a patient with cancer. The nurse should help relieve the discomfort of pain and burning during the infusion by A) slowing the infusion. B) decreasing the volume used for dilution. C) decreasing the total volume of the primary IV infusion. D) administering a dose of 2 units of bleomycin before carmustine. Question 33 A middle-aged patient has received a diagnosis of GI stromal tumor following an extensive diagnostic workup. Imatinib has been recommended as a component of the patient’s drug regimen. What patient education should the nurse provide to this patient? A) “It’s important that you let us know if you develop any significant swelling or puffiness.” B) “Try to keep your PICC line dressing as dry as possible at all times.” C) “You’ll likely experience a lot of dry mouth while you’re taking this drug, so it’s helpful to chew ice chips.” D) “If you experience significant nausea after taking a dose, stop taking the drug and schedule an appointment at the clinic.” Question 34 A nurse has completed a medication reconciliation of a patient who has been admitted following a motor vehicle accident. Among the many drugs that the patient has received in the previous year is rituximab. The nurse would be justified in suspecting the patient may have received treatment for which of the following diseases? A) Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma B) Malignant melanoma C) Nonsmall cell lung cancer D) Renal cell carcinoma Question 35 Mr. Lepp is a 63-year-old man who was diagnosed with colon cancer several weeks ago and who is scheduled to begin chemotherapy.He reports to the nurse that he read about the need for erythropoietin in an online forum for cancer patients and wants to explore the use of epoetin alfa with his oncologist. Which of the following facts should underlie the nurse’s response to Mr. Lepp? A) Epoetin alfa is normally contraindicated in patients who are receiving radiotherapy or chemotherapy. B) Treatment with epoetin alfa will likely begin 4 to 6 days before Mr. Lepp’s first round of chemotherapy and continue indefinitely. C) The potential benefits of epoetin alfa must be weighed carefully against the potential adverse effects in cancer patients. D) Mr. Lepp’s oncologist should have begun treatment with epoetin alfa immediately after he was diagnosed.

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Gaps in literature and different types of evidence 2025

Provide a 3-4 sentence response to discussion question answer provided below in apa format with in-text citations. Title page is not needed Answer: Identifying gaps during literature review or other types of evidence is an integral step in a systematic review. Gaps in research findings can be related to insufficient or vague information, biased information, inconsistent results, unknown consistency with the results, or not providing the right information. Research gaps can limit the ability for key stakeholders to make decisions and implement evidence-based practice changes (Robinson, 2013). Even though research may present with gaps, do these gaps help or hinder when attempting to create change in an organization? The answer could be both. In one instance, it could hinder the process if the existing evidence does not answer the question or there are significant deficiencies with the information which limits the ability to create a solution to a practice problem. On the other hand, research gaps can be further developed and provide a springboard for stakeholders to look into other areas of research or evidence (Robinson, 2013). Original Question: When reviewing the literature and different types of evidence, there are often gaps in the findings. Are such gaps a help or a hindrance when wanting to create a change?

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Walden NURS6521 Week 8 Quiz 2017 2025

Question 1 A 15-year-old boy is being carefully monitored for a skin infection and is being given ciprofloxacin. The nurse will observe for which of the following? A) Arthropathy B) Colitis C) Hepatitis D) Hypotension Question 2 A patient has been admitted to the critical care unit of the hospital with bacterial septicemia that has failed to respond to initial antibiotic treatment. The patient’s most recent blood cultures reveal the presence of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in the patient’s blood. The nurse will anticipate that this patient will likely require intravenous administration of what antibiotic? A) Vancomycin B) Penicillin G C) Cefazolin D) Doripenem (Doribax) Question 3 Mr. Laird is a 49-year-old electrician who experienced severe burns on his trunk, arms, and hands in a workplace accident 2 weeks ago. Part of his current wound care regimen involves the daily application of silver sulfadiazine to his wounds.The nurses who are providing care for Mr. Laird in the burns and plastics unit of the hospital should perform what action when administering this medication? A) Apply a layer of silver sulfadiazine that is sufficiently thick to make the wound bed invisible. B) Cleanse the wound of debris prior to applying the silver sulfadiazine C) Apply a thin layer of the drug to Mr. Laird’s wound beds using clean technique. D) Perform thorough wound care immediately after the application of silver sulfadiazine Question 4 A patient is prescribed ganciclovir to treat a CMV infection. An oral dosage is prescribed. To help increase bioavailability of the drug, the nurse will encourage the patient to take the medication A) with high-fat meals B) with orange juice C) on an empty stomach D) with high-protein meals Question 5 A patient has endocarditis and is taking gentamicin. The nurse will be sure to monitor which of the following? A) Potassium level B) Creatinine clearance C) Serum albumin level D) Prothrombin time Question 6 A 30-year-old woman who is in the first trimester of pregnancy has presented to her primary care provider with a 4-day history of a reddened, itchy left eye that is crusted with purulent exudate. The clinician suspects a bacterial, rather than viral, etiology. How will the patient’s pregnancy affect the potential use of ciprofloxacin to treat her conjunctivitis? A) Ciprofloxacin is safe to use in pregnancy and the patient may use to same dose and route as a nonpregnant patient B) The use of ciprofloxacin is contraindicated in pregnancy C) It is safe for the patient to use topical ciprofloxacin but the oral route is potential teratogenic D) The patient will require a lower dose and longer course of ciprofloxacin than a nonpregnant, adult patient Question 7 A nurse has questioned why a patient’s physician has prescribed a narrow-spectrum antibiotic rather than a broad-spectrum drug in the treatment of a patient’s infection. Which of the following facts provides the best rationale for the use of narrow-spectrum antibiotics whenever possible? A) Broad-spectrum antibiotics confound the results of subsequent culture and sensitivity testing. B) Narrow-spectrum antibiotics normally require a shorter duration of treatment C) The efficacy of most narrow-spectrum antibiotics has not been proven D) The use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can create a risk for a superinfection Question 8 A 72-year-old patient is prescribed ophthalmic ciprofloxacin for a bacterial infection in her right eye. The nurse will teach her to observe for which of the following adverse effects of the drug? A) Lid margin crusting and pruritus B) Cognitive changes C) Nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity D) Tendon ruptures Question 9 A patient has been prescribed oral tetracycline.The nurse will instruct the patient to take the drug A) on an empty stomach 1 hour before or 2 hours after taking any meals or other drugs. B) with a meal. C) with milk or fruit juice. D) at bedtime only. Question 10 A 20-year-old female patient is receiving topical clindamycin for acne vulgaris. She develops a rash and urticaria along with severe itching where the medication is applied. The nurse will formulate which of the following nursing diagnoses for the patient? A) Diarrhea B) Risk for Injury related to allergic reactions C) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements D) Risk of Injury related to blood dyscrasia drug therapy, including INH and rifampin. A priority assessment by the nurse will be to monitor which combination of laboratory test results? A) Serum alanine transaminase, aspartate transaminase, and bilirubin B) Red blood count, white blood count, and differential C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone, thyroxine, and triiodothyronine levels D) Fasting blood sugar and 2-hour postprandial blood sugar Question 12 An immunocompromised cancer patient has developed cryptococcal meningitis and been admitted to the intensive care unit for treatment with amphotericin B. How should the nurse most safely administer this drug? A) Hang the drug by piggyback with lactated Ringer’s and infuse over several hours to minimize the risk of infusion reaction B) Infuse the drug over 2 to 4 hours into a central line using an infusion pump C) Flush the patient’s central line with normal saline and infuse the amphotericin B by intravenous push over 5 to 7 minutes. D) Place the patient on a constant infusion of amphotericin B at a rate determined by the patient’s body weight. Question 13 A nurse is aware that the concept of selective toxicity is foundational to antimicrobial therapy. Which of the following statements most accurately describes selective toxicity? A) A drug harms microbes without harming human cells B) A drug’s effect on microorganisms is proportionate to dose C) Most microbes may be collected from a host and cultured on an alternative medium D) A drug can be isolated and produced in a controlled manner in a laboratory setting Question 14 An immunocompromised patient in a critical care setting has developed a respiratory infection that has been attributed to methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse should anticipate that the patient will require treatment with A) ciprofloxacin B) clindamycin C) vancomycin D) an antistaphylococcic penicillin Question 15 Laboratory testing has confirmed that a patient has chloroquine-resistant malaria and the patient’s physician has prescribed quinine along with an adjunctive drug. The nurse should question the physician’s order if the patient has a history of A) osteoporosis or low bone density B) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) C) diabetes mellitus D) cardiac arrhythmias Question 16 A 46-year-old man is receiving a quinupristin/dalfopristin IV infusion for a life-threatening infection. Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to monitor? A) Increased heart rate B) Breathlessness C) Infiltration, edema, or phlebitis at the infusion site D) Nausea and vomiting Question 17 A patient with AIDS has developed a number of secondary infections in recent weeks, including Kaposi’s sarcoma. As a result of this most recent diagnosis, his care team has opted to begin treatment with interferon alfa-2a. The nurse is aware that this drug will address the etiology of Kaposi sarcoma by A) inhibiting tumor growth by enhancing inflammation B) potentiating the effects of phagocytes and macrophages C) causing mutations in the DNA of cancerous cells D) increasing the production of B cells and T cells Question 18 Sulconazole has been prescribed for a patient with tinea pedis. The nurse will instruct the patient to use the topical agent A) once a day B) twice a day C) three times a day D) as needed Question 19 Which of the following is critical to helping prevent development of resistant strains of microbes in patients? A) Limit the exposure of bacteria to an antimicrobial agent B) Keep the antimicrobial drug dosage high C) Maintain the optimum duration of the antimicrobial agent D) Maintain the maximum safe frequency of antimicrobial drug ingestion Question 20 Which of the following nursing actions is most important in achieving successful antimicrobial therapy with vancomycin? A) Provide maximum physical comfort to the patient B) Monitor serum drug level C) Taper down the drug dosage gradually D) Promote adequate intake of fluids and nutrients Question 21 A patient is being treated for Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia. She is allergic to penicillin and is being given azithromycin (Zithromax) in capsule form. The nurse will inform the patient that she will need to take the capsule A) with food B) on an empty stomach C) with or without food D) immediately after she eats Question 22 A patient is taking rifampin (Rifadin) for active TB. When discussing this drug with the patient, the nurse should stress that A) the drug usually causes cardiac arrhythmias B) the drug frequently causes seizure activity C) facial flushing may appear but will go away once therapy is concluded D) body fluids such as urine, saliva, tears, and sputum may become discolored Question 23 A nurse is explaining the use of acyclovir therapy to a 72-year-old man. Nephrotoxicity is discussed as a major adverse effect in older patients. To minimize the risk of the patient developing this adverse effect, the nurse will advise him to A) take the tablets on an empty stomach B) decrease the drug dosage if initial symptoms of nephrotoxicity appear C) stay well hydrated by drinking at least eight 8-oz glasses of water daily D) eat light meals every day Question 24 A 9-year-old boy was bought to his primary care provider by his mother with signs and symptoms of hookworm infection and will be sent home with a prescription for mebendazole. When provided patient and family education, the nurse should teach the mother with which of the following measures to avoid reinfection following treatment? A) The importance of vigilant hygiene for the boy and the other members of the family B) The need for the boy to provide serial stool samples for 6 months following treatment C) The need to supplement the anthelminthic drug with prophylactic antibiotics D) The need to use prescription skin cleansers during treatment and for 6 weeks after Question 25 A nurse is caring for a patient who is on amphotericin B. On morning rounds the patient reports weakness, numbness, and a tingling sensation in his feet. What would be a priority action by the nurse? A) Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake B) Use strict aseptic technique for drug administration C) Keep the bed in a low position and the side rails up at all times D) Reduce the drug dosage Question 26 A nurse is providing education to a patient who is taking INH. The nurse will advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods? A) Cheese, dairy products, and bananas B) Potatoes and root vegetables C) Citrus fruits D) Chicken and fish Question 27 A child is taking permethrin for head lice. The nurse will instruct her mother to A) wash her hair daily with a good shampoo B) increase her daily intake of milk C) maximize the child’s fluid intake D) stop using creams, ointments, and oils on the child’s skin and scalp. Question 28 A patient is receiving cefazolin in combination with anticoagulants. To minimize the adverse effects during therapy, the nurse will A) monitor the site of injection B) monitor the patient for bleeding gums C) continue therapy until 2 days after symptoms have resolved D) administer the medication with small amounts of food and fluids Question 29 Which of the following would a nurse assess for in a patient who is taking polymyxin B systemically? A) Peripheral neuropathy B) Nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity C) Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia D) Endocarditis and hypertension Question 30 A 30-year-old African-American woman tested positive for TB and is prescribed isoniazid. The nurse will plan the patient’s care to include close monitoring of the drug therapy because A) the process of drug elimination will be faster in this patient B) the therapeutic effect of the drug may be too slow to be effective C) the patient is at greater risk for high serum levels of the drug D) the process of drug metabolism may be faster in this patient Question 31 A patient is receiving long-term clindamycin therapy for a life-threatening infection. The nurse will begin by monitoring this drug therapy by obtaining A) blood glucose levels daily for 1 week B) establishing the patient’s auditory abilities C) a baseline complete blood count D) liver enzymes weekly until the drug therapy is completed Question 32 A 45-year-old female patient is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a bronchial infection. A nursing assessment revealed that she started taking daily vitamin supplements about 2 years ago. To maximize the therapeutic effects of the ciprofloxacin therapy, the nurse should advise the patient to A) take the vitamins at least 2 hours before or after taking ciprofloxacin B) alternate the dosage of ciprofloxacin and vitamin supplements C) reduce the dosage of vitamin supplements D) reduce the dosage of vitamin supplements and double the dosage of ciprofloxacin Question 33 A 7-year-old child has tonsillitis and is prescribed penicillin V, which is to be administered at home. The nurse will instruct the parents to administer the drug A) with a sip of water 1 hour before mealtime B) immediately before or with a meal C) with a glass of water 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal D) intravenously with the assistance of a home health nurse Question 34 A 15-year-old patient has meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae. She is being treated with chloramphenicol. The most important nursing action for this patient would be to monitor A) blood sugar levels daily B) liver enzymes monthly C) plasma concentrations regularly D) urine output daily Question 35 A 49-year-old farmer who normally enjoys good health has become seriously ill in recent days and the results of an extensive diagnostic work up have resulted in a diagnosis of histoplasmosis. The patient has been admitted to the hospital and has begun treatment with amphotericin B. The nurse who is providing care for the patient should prioritize which of the following diagnostic results during his course of treatment? A) Electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen, and creatinine B) Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cells C) PT, PTT, and platelets D) C-reactive protein d

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Dietary Analysis Project- Complete_Part IV (130 Points 2025

You should take time this week and next to review and compose Part IV of the Dietary Analysis Project: Final Project Presentation. You will submit the entire Dietary Analysis Project including revisions of Part I through Part III, and Part IV. This should be submitted by Week 7 (July 9th) Sunday at 11:59 p.m., eastern time. Note: If needed, please refer to the full project details attached here – they are the same instructions that were posted in Week 3.

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