Patient Education Technology Guide to a Mobile Health Application PowerPoint – 2025 The purpose of this assignment is to demonstrate the skills of the professional nurse as an educator

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Patient Education Technology Guide to a Mobile Health Application PowerPoint – 2025

The purpose of this assignment is to demonstrate the skills of the professional nurse as an educator. You are to prepare a guide that will serve as a handout to assist a specific patient that you identify. Your guide or handout should help this patient find and evaluate a reliable mobile health, or mHealth application (app) that is already developed. This may be related to his or her disease process or diagnosis, or may be an app that can help a patient maintain or improve good health, and prevent illness.

 

 

This assignment will be going through “turnitin” DO NOT plagiarize!!!! Please follow the directions exactly. I do perfer someone who’s familar with nursing this assignment is due by Sat 15th

Discussion module 1 discussion 2 – 2025 Select one of the theories you have reviewed in this lesson that you use or

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Discussion module 1 discussion 2 – 2025

Select one of the theories you have reviewed in this lesson that you use or plan to use in your practice. Why do you use this theory? Be sure to relate its use to a specific culture or cultures. The title of your post should include the name of the theory.  TALK ABOU T FLORENCE NIGHTINGALE ENVIRONMENT IN THE CENTRAL CONCEPT THEORY.

Then, comment on two postings that focus on a theory you did not write about. Be sure to say something substantial. Did you learn something new? Do you agree? Why or why not? 

Your posts will be graded as follows:

Psychotherapy – 2025 The Assignment In a 1 to 2 page paper address the following Briefly describe how cognitive behavioral

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Psychotherapy – 2025

  

The Assignment

In a 1- to 2-page paper, address the following:

  • Briefly describe how cognitive behavioral      therapy (CBT) and rational emotive behavioral therapy (REBT) are similar.
  • Explain      at least three differences between CBT and REBT. Include how these      differences might impact your practice as a mental health counselor.
  • Explain      which version of cognitive behavioral therapy you might use with clients      and why. Support your approach with evidence-based literature. (Please use APA formanting Introduction, summary References, )

Homework for Health Care Management – 2025 Due tomorrow Monday at 1 00 PM Central Discussion Board 5 HCA 340 Discussion Board

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Homework for Health Care Management – 2025

Due tomorrow Monday at 1:00 PM Central

Discussion Board #5 Options Menu: Forum

HCA 340

Discussion Board Assignment #5

Chapter 6 – Medical Education and the Changing Practice of Medicine 

Answer the following questions:

  1. The Flexner Report of 1910 is described by the authors as “an accurate and searing description of abuses in the medical schools.” Describe some of the major shortcomings of medical education cited by the Flexner report and the corrective measures that resulted.
  2. Academic medical centers were formed by the union of medical schools through affiliations with hospitals that provided clinical experience for medical students. These affiliations were later broadened into academic health centers. Describe the components of the academic health centers and their significance to the evolution of the university-based health professional education complex.
  3. The health care delivery system now with ACA mandates, places increased emphasis on maintaining wellness and on promoting disease avoidance through healthy behaviors and lifestyles. What are some challenges this new orientation poses for our existing system of medical education and training?
  4. In what ways did physicians’ relationships with hospitals change as a result of health care industry reforms? Discuss the consequences of these changes for physicians’ roles and responsibilities in relationship to hospitals.
  5. The dispute over exposing the comparative performance of physicians on a wide spectrum of variables has been resolved in favor of the consumers of health care with requirements such as “Physician Compare.”  A number of states have passed legislation that gives the public access to physician information, including disciplinary records, malpractice actions, and whether a physician has lost hospital privileges. Are these fair and balanced bases on which consumers should make decisions about their choice of physicians?
  6. Given the new role of hospitalists in patient care, identify some issues raised by this new brand of physician for the primary physician and patient.

How a Bill Becomes a Law – 2025 As you have discovered through this course nurses are influential members of the community and the

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How a Bill Becomes a Law – 2025

As you have discovered through this course, nurses are influential members of the community and the political system. Therefore, for the purposes of this assignment you will identify a problem or concern in your community, organization, etc. that has the capacity to be legislated. You will conduct research and state a proposal. Through the legislative process, your proposal for the problem or concern may influence an idea for change into a law.

First, refer to the “How a Bill Becomes a Law” media.

http://lc.gcumedia.com/zwebassets/courseMaterialPages/nrs440v_how-a-bill-becomes-a-law-v2.1.php/. 

Then, view the “Bill to Law Process” to watch the scenario.

After viewing the scenario, refer to the “Legislative Assignment.” You will need to save the document first in order to use it.

Submit the assignment to the instructor. You also reserve the right to submit your completed proposal to the respective government official. However, this is optional. If you select to submit your proposal as a part of the legislative process, refer to “Find Your Representative” or research the contact information on your own. 

MN553 Unit 8 Practice Quiz Latest 2017 – 2025 Question Question 1 1 1 point Charlie is a 65 year old male who has been diagnosed with hypertension and

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MN553 Unit 8 Practice Quiz Latest 2017 – 2025

  

Question

Question 1 1 / 1 point

Charlie is a 65-year-old male who has been diagnosed with hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Doxazosin has been chosen to treat his hypertension because it:

Question options:

Increases peripheral vasoconstriction

Decreases detrusor muscle contractility

Lowers supine blood pressure more than standing pressure

Relaxes smooth muscle in the bladder neck

Question 2 1 / 1 point

Which of the following adverse effects are less likely in a beta1-selective blocker?

Question options:

Dysrhythmias

Impaired insulin release

Reflex orthostatic changes

Decreased triglycerides and cholesterol

Question 3 1 / 1 point

Beta blockers have favorable effects on survival and disease progression in heart failure. Treatment should be initiated when the:

Question options:

Symptoms are severe

Patient has not responded to other therapies

Patient has concurrent hypertension

Left ventricular dysfunction is diagnosed

Question 4 1 / 1 point

You are treating a patient with a diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease. The patient’s wife mentions difficulty with transportation to the clinic. Which medication is the best choice?

Question options:

Donepezil

Tacrine

Doxazosin

Verapamil

Question 5 1 / 1 point

Antonia is a 3-year-old child who has a history of status epilepticus. Along with her routine antiseizure medication, she should also have a home prescription for_________ to be used for an episode of status epilepticus.

Question options:

IV phenobarbital

Rectal diazepam (Diastat)

IV phenytoin (Dilantin)

Oral carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Question 6 1 / 1 point

Dwayne has recently started on carbamazepine to treat seizures. He comes to see you and you note that while his carbamazepine levels had been in the therapeutic range, they are now low. The possible cause for the low carbamazepine levels include:

Question options:

Dwayne hasn’t been taking his carbamazepine because it causes insomnia.

Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.

Dwayne was not originally prescribed the correct amount of carbamazepine.

Carbamazepine is probably not the right antiseizure medication for Dwayne.

Question 7 1 / 1 point

Kasey fractured his ankle in two places and is asking for medication for his pain. The appropriate first-line medication would be:

Question options:

Ibuprofen (Advil)

Acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)

Oxycodone (Oxycontin)

Oral morphine (Roxanol)

Question 8 1 / 1 point

Jack, age 8, has attention deficit disorder (ADD) and is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). He and his parents should be educated about the side effects of methylphenidate, which are:

Question options:

Slurred speech and insomnia

Bradycardia and confusion

Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension

Insomnia and decreased appetite

Question 9 1 / 1 point

An appropriate first-line drug to try for mild to moderate generalized anxiety disorder would be:

Question options:

Alprazolam (Xanax)

Diazepam (Valium)

Buspirone (Buspar)

Amitriptyline (Elavil)

Question 10 1 / 1 point

David is a 34-year-old patient who is starting on paroxetine (Paxil) for depression. David’s education regarding his medication would include:

Question options:

Paroxetine may cause intermittent diarrhea.

He may experience sexual dysfunction beginning a month after he starts therapy.

He may have constipation and he should increase fluids and fiber.

Paroxetine has a long half-life so he may occasionally skip a dose.

Question 11 1 / 1 point

An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:

Question options:

Alprazolam (Xanax)

Escitalopram (Lexapro)

Buspirone (Buspar)

Amitriptyline (Elavil)

Question 12 1 / 1 point

The longer-term Xanax patient comes in and states they need a higher dose of the medication. They deny any additional, new, or accelerating triggers of their anxiety. What is the probable reason?

Question options:

They have become tolerant of the medication, which is characterized by the need for higher and higher doses.

They are a drug seeker.

They are suicidal.

They only need additional counseling on lifestyle modification.

Question 13 1 / 1 point

A first-line drug for abortive therapy in simple migraine is:

Question options:

Sumatriptan (Imitrex)

Naproxen (Aleve)

Butorphanol nasal spray (Stadol NS)

Butalbital and acetaminophen (Fioricet)

Question 14 1 / 1 point

Xi, a 54-year-old female, has a history of migraines that do not respond well to OTC migraine medication. She is asking to try Maxalt (rizatriptan) because it works well for her friend. Appropriate decision making would be:

Question options:

Prescribe the Maxalt, but only give her four tablets with no refills to monitor the use.

Prescribe Maxalt and arrange to have her observed in the clinic or urgent care with the first dose.

Explain that rizatriptan is not used for postmenopausal migraines and recommend Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital).

Prescribe sumatriptan (Imitrex) with the explanation that it is the most effective triptan.

Question 15 1 / 1 point

Kelly is a 14-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with a classic migraine. She says she is having a headache two to three times a month. The initial plan would be:

Question options:

Prescribe NSAIDs as abortive therapy and have her keep a headache diary to identify her triggers.

Prescribe zolmitriptan (Zomig) as abortive therapy and recommend relaxation therapy to reduce her stress.

Prescribe acetaminophen with codeine (Tylenol #3) for her to take at the first onset of her migraine.

Prescribe sumatriptan (Imitrex) nasal spray and arrange for her to receive the first dose in the clinic.

Question 16 1 / 1 point

James has been diagnosed with cluster headaches. Appropriate acute therapy would be:

Question options:

Butalbital and aspirin (Fiorinal)

Meperidine IM (Demerol)

Oxygen 100% for 15 to 30 minutes

Indomethacin (Indocin)

Question 17 1 / 1 point

If interventions to resolve the cause of pain (e.g., rest, ice, compression, and elevation) are insufficient, pain medications are given based on the severity of pain. Drugs are given in which order of use?

Question options:

NSAIDs, opiates, corticosteroids

Low-dose opiates, salicylates, increased dose of opiates

Opiates, non-opiates, increased dose of non-opiate

Non-opiate, increased dose of non-opiate, opiate

Question 18 1 / 1 point

Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a “red flag” about potential chemical dependency?

Question options:

Use of more than one drug to treat the pain

Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill

Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines

Presence of a family member who has abused drugs

Question 19 1 / 1 point

The Pain Management Contract is appropriate for:

Question options:

Patients with cancer who are taking morphine

Patients with chronic pain who will require long-term use of opiates

Patients who have a complex drug regimen

Patients who see multiple providers for pain control

Question 20 1 / 1 point

Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?

Question options:

Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.

Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.

Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.

Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.

   

Health & Medicine – 2025 Assignment Instructions Prompt 1 Is health care a privilege or a right 300 words Based on the following

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Health & Medicine – 2025

  

Assignment Instructions

Prompt #1. Is health care a privilege or a right? (300 words). Based on the following article Health Care Issues.pdf  (ATTACHED) and your personal experiences, respond to Prompt #1

 
 

Prompt #2. After reading Martha Mendoza’s “Between a Woman and her Doctor,” (GOOGLE IT) respond to the following question: What role should government policy play in doctor-patient decisions? (300 words)

Requirements:

· Respond to two prompts with a minimum 300 word each

· Graphic, photo, hyperlink or other visual (required).

· Cite any sources used or quoted material.

NGS6420 Week 10 Final Exam Guide – 2025 Question Question 1 You are beginning the examination of the skin on a 25 year old teacher You

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NGS6420 Week 10 Final Exam Guide – 2025

  

Question

Question 1. You are beginning the examination of the skin on a 25-year-old teacher. You have previously elicited that she came to the office for evaluation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. You strongly suspect that she has hypothyroidism. What is the expected moisture and texture of the skin of a patient with hypothyroidism?

Moist and smooth

Moist and rough

Dry and smooth

Dry and rough

Question 2. Question : You are assessing a patient with joint pain and are trying to decide whether it is inflammatory or noninflammatory in nature. Which one of the following symptoms is consistent with an inflammatory process?

Tenderness

Cool temperature

Ecchymosis

Nodules

Question 3. Question : A 68-year-old retired farmer comes to your office for evaluation of a skin lesion. On the right temporal area of the forehead, you see a flattened papule the same color as his skin, covered by a dry scale that is round and feels hard. He has several more of these scattered on the forehead, arms, and legs. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

Actinic keratosis

Seborrheic keratosis

Basal cell carcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 4. Question : A 28-year-old graduate student comes to your clinic for evaluation of pain “all over.” With further questioning, she is able to relate that the pain is worse in the neck, shoulders, hands, low back, and knees. She denies swelling in her joints. She states that the pain is worse in the morning. There is no limitation in her range of motion. On physical examination, she has several points on the muscles of the neck, shoulders, and back that are tender to palpation. Muscle strength and range of motion are normal. Which one of the following is likely the cause of her pain?

Rheumatoid arthritis

Osteoarthritis

Fibromyalgia

Polymyalgia rheumatica

Question 5. Question : Heberden’s nodes are commonly found in which one of the following diseases?

Rheumatoid arthritis

Degenerative joint disease

Psoriatic arthritis

Septic arthritis

Question 6. Question : A new patient is complaining of severe pruritus that is worse at night. Several family members also have the same symptoms. Upon examination, areas of excoriated papules are noted on some of the interdigital webs of both hands and on the axillae. This finding is most consistent with:

Contact dermatitis

Impetigo

Larva migrans

Scabies

Question 7. Question : An obese 55-year-old woman went through menarche at age 16 and menopause 2 years ago. She is concerned because an aunt had severe osteoporosis. Which one of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis?

Obesity

Late menopause

Having an aunt with osteoporosis

Delayed menarche

Question 8. Question : Ms. Whiting is a 68-year-old female who comes in for her usual follow-up visit. You notice a few flat red and purple lesions, about 6 centimeters in diameter, on the ulnar aspect of her forearms but nowhere else. She doesn’t mention them. They are tender when you examine them. What should you do?

Conclude that these are lesions she has had for a long time.

Wait for her to mention them before asking further questions.

Ask how she acquired them.

Conduct the visit as usual for the patient.

Question 9. Question : A 58-year-old man comes to your office complaining of bilateral back pain that now awakens him at night. This has been steadily increasing for the past 2 months. Which one of the following is the most reassuring in this patient with back pain?

: Age over 50

Pain at night

Pain lasting more than 1 month or not responding to therapy

Pain that is bilateral

Question 10. Question : The Phalen’s test is used to evaluate:

Inflammation of the median nerve

Rheumatoid arthritis

Degenerative joint changes

Chronic tenosynovitis

1. Question : Which of the following would lead you to suspect a hydrocele versus other causes of scrotal swelling?

The presence of bowel sounds in the scrotum

Being unable to palpate superior to the mass

A positive transillumination test

Normal thickness of the skin of the scrotum

Question 2. Question : You are examining a newborn and note that the right testicle is not in the scrotum. What should you do next?

Refer to urology

Recheck in six months

Tell the parent the testicle is absent but that this should not affect fertility

Attempt to bring down the testis from the inguinal canal

Question 3. Question : A 50-year-old truck driver comes to your clinic for a work physical. He has had no upper respiratory, cardiac, pulmonary, gastrointestinal, urinary, or musculoskeletal system complaints. His past medical history is significant for mild arthritis and prior knee surgery in college. He is married and just changed jobs, working for a different trucking company. He smokes one pack of cigarettes a day, drinks less than six beers a week, and denies using any illegal drugs. His mother has high blood pressure and arthritis and his father died of lung cancer in his sixties. On examination, his blood pressure is 130/80 and his pulse is 80. His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. He has no inguinal hernia, but on his digital rectal examination you palpate a soft, smooth, and nontender pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum. What anal, rectal, or prostate disorder best fits his presentation?

Internal hemorrhoid

Prostate cancer

Anorectal cancer

Rectal polyp

Question 4. Question : A 15-year-old high school football player is brought to your office by his mother. He is complaining of severe testicular pain since exactly 8:00 this morning. He denies any sexual activity and states that he hurts so bad he can’t even urinate. He is nauseated and is throwing up. He denies any recent illness or fever. His past medical history is unremarkable. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His parents are both in good health. On examination, you see a young teenager lying on the bed with an emesis basin. He is very uncomfortable and keeps shifting his position. His blood pressure is 150/100, his pulse is 110, and his respirations are 24. On visualization of the penis, he is circumcised and there are no lesions and no discharge from the meatus. His scrotal skin is tense and red. Palpation of the left testicle causes severe pain and the patient begins to cry. His prostate examination is unremarkable. His cremasteric reflex is absent on the left but is normal on the right. By catheter you get a urine sample and the analysis is unremarkable. You send the boy with his mother to the emergency room for further workup.

Acute orchitis

Acute epididymitis

Torsion of the spermatic cord

Prostatitis

Question 5. Question : Which is true of prostate cancer?

It is commonly lethal.

It is one of the less common forms of cancer.

Family history does not appear to be a risk factor.

Ethnicity is a risk factor.

Question 6. Question : Which of the following conditions involves a tight prepuce which, once retracted, cannot be returned?

Phimosis

Paraphimosis

Balanitis

Balanoposthitis

Question 7. Question : A 12-year-old is brought to your clinic by his father. He was taught in his health class at school to do monthly testicular self-examinations. Yesterday, when he felt his left testicle, it was enlarged and tender. He isn’t sure if he has had burning with urination and he says he has never had sexual intercourse. He has had a sore throat, cough, and runny nose for the last three days. His past medical history is significant for a tonsillectomy as a small child. His father has high blood pressure and his mother is healthy. On examination, you see a child in no acute distress. His temperature is 100.8 and his blood pressure and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis, he is uncircumcised and has no lesions or discharge. His scrotum is red and tense on the left and normal appearing on the right. Palpating his left testicle reveals a mildly sore swollen testicle. The right testicle is unremarkable. An examining finger is put through both inguinal rings, and there are no bulges with bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable. Urine analysis is also unremarkable. What abnormality of the testes does this child most likely have?

Acute orchitis

Acute epididymitis

Torsion of the spermatic cord

Prostatitis

Question 8. Question : The most common cause of cancer deaths in males is:

Lung cancer

Prostate cancer

Colon cancer

Skin cancer

Question 9. Question : Important techniques in performing the rectal examination include which of the following?

Lubrication

Waiting for the sphincter to relax

Explaining what the patient should expect with each step before it occurs

All of the above

Question 10. Question : Jim is a 47-year-old man who is having difficulties with sexual function. He is recently separated from his wife of 20 years. He notes that he has early morning erections but otherwise cannot function. Which of the following is a likely cause for his problem?

Decreased testosterone levels

Psychological issues

Abnormal hypogastric arterial circulation

Impaired neural innervation

Question 1. Which of the following is true of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection?

Pap smear is a relatively ineffective screening method.

It commonly resolves spontaneously in one to two years.

It is the second most common STI in the United States.

HPV infections cause a small but important number of cervical cancers.

Question 2. Question : Which of the following is the most effective pattern of palpation for breast cancer?

Beginning at the nipple, make an ever-enlarging spiral.

Divide the breast into quadrants and inspect each systematically.

Examine in lines resembling the back and forth pattern of mowing a lawn.

Beginning at the nipple, palpate vertically in a stripe pattern.

Question 3. Question : A 14-year-old junior high school student is brought in by his mother and father because he seems to be developing breasts. The mother is upset because she read on the Internet that smoking marijuana leads to breast enlargement in males. The young man adamantly denies using any tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. He has recently noticed changes in his penis, testicles, and pubic hair pattern. Otherwise, his past medical history is unremarkable. His parents are both in good health. He has two older brothers who never had this problem. On examination, you see a mildly overweight teenager with enlarged breast tissue that is slightly tender on both sides. Otherwise, his examination is normal. He is agreeable to taking a drug test. What is the most likely cause of his gynecomastia?

Breast cancer

Imbalance of hormones of puberty

Drug use

Question 4. Question : Which of the following represents metrorrhagia?

Fewer than 21 days between menses

Excessive flow

Infrequent bleeding

Bleeding between periods

Question 5. Question : What does a KOH (potassium hydroxide) prep help the nurse practitioner diagnose?

Herpes zoster infections

Yeast infections

Herpes simplex infections

Viral infections

Question 6. Question : Abby is a newly married woman who is unable to have intercourse because of vaginismus. Which of the following is true?

This is most likely due to lack of lubrication.

This is most likely due to atrophic vaginitis.

This is most likely due to pressure on an ovary.

Psychosocial reasons may cause this condition.

Question 7. Question : A 30-year-old man notices a firm, 2-cm mass under his areola. He has no other symptoms and no diagnosis of breast cancer in his first-degree relatives. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Breast tissue

Fibrocystic disease

Breast cancer

Lymph node

Question 8. Question : Which of the following is true regarding breast self-examination?

It has been shown to reduce mortality from breast cancer.

It is recommended unanimously by organizations making screening recommendations.

A high proportion of breast masses are detected by breast self-examination.

The undue fear caused by finding a mass justifies omitting instruction in breast self-examination.

Question 9. Question : A 23-year-old computer programmer comes to your office for an annual examination. She has recently become sexually active and wants to be placed on birth control. Her only complaint is that the skin in her armpits has become darker. She states it looks like dirt, and she scrubs her skin nightly with soap and water but the color stays. Her past medical symptoms consist of acne and mild obesity. Her periods have been irregular for 3 years. Her mother has type 2 diabetes, and her father has high blood pressure. The patient denies using tobacco but has four to five drinks on Friday and Saturday nights. She denies any illegal drug use. On examination, you see a mildly obese female who is breathing comfortably. Her vital signs are unremarkable. Looking under her axilla, you see dark, velvet-like skin. Her annual examination is otherwise unremarkable. What disorder of the breast or axilla is she most likely to have?

Peau d’orange

Acanthosis nigricans

Hidradenitis suppurativa

Question 10. Question : Which of the following is true of women who have had a unilateral mastectomy?

They no longer require breast examination.

They should be examined carefully along the surgical scar for masses.

Lymphedema of the ipsilateral arm usually suggests recurrence of breast cancer.

Women with breast reconstruction over their mastectomy site no longer require examination.

Question 1. A 76-year-old retired farmer comes to your office complaining of abdominal pain, constipation, and a low-grade fever for about three days. He denies any nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The only unusual thing he remembers eating is two bags of popcorn at the movies with his grandson, three days before his symptoms began. He denies any other recent illnesses. His past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and high blood pressure. He has been married for over fifty years. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His mother died of colon cancer and his father had a stroke. On examination, he appears his stated age and is in no acute distress. His temperature is 100.9 degrees and his other vital signs are unremarkable. His head, cardiac, and pulmonary examinations are normal. He has normal bowel sounds and is tender over the left lower quadrant. He has no rebound or guarding. His rectal examination is unremarkable and his fecal occult blood test is negative.His prostate is slightly enlarged but his testicular, penile, and inguinal  examinations are all normal. Blood work is pending.

What diagnosis for abdominal pain best describes his symptoms and signs?

Acute diverticulitis

Acute cholecystitis

Acute appendicitis

Mesenteric ischemia

Question 2. Question : Jim is a 60-year-old man who presents with vomiting. He denies seeing any blood with emesis, which has been occurring for two days. He does note a dark, granular substance resembling the coffee left in the filter after brewing. What do you suspect?

Bleeding from a diverticulum

Bleeding from a peptic ulcer

Bleeding from a colon cancer

Bleeding from cholecystitis

Question 3. Question : A 26-year-old sports store manager comes to your clinic, complaining of severe right-sided abdominal pain for twelve hours. He began having a stomachache yesterday, with a decreased appetite, but today the pain seems to be just on the lower right side. He has had some nausea and vomiting but no constipation or diarrhea. His last bowel movement was the night before and was normal. He has had no fever or chills. He denies any recent illnesses or injuries. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is engaged. He denies any tobacco or drug use and drinks four to six beers per week. His mother has breast cancer and his father has coronary artery disease. On examination, he appears ill and is lying on his right side. His temperature is 100.4 degrees and his heart rate is 110. His bowel sounds are decreased and he has rebound and involuntary guarding, one-third of the way between the anterior superior iliac spine and the umbilicus in the right lower quadrant (RLQ). His rectal, inguinal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations are normal.

What is the most likely cause of his pain?

Acute appendicitis

Acute mechanical intestinal obstruction

Acute cholecystitis

Mesenteric ischemia

Question 4. Question : Josh is a 14-year-old boy who presents with a sore throat. On examination, you notice dullness in the last intercostal space in the anterior axillary line on his left side with a deep breath. What does this indicate?

His spleen is definitely enlarged and further workup is warranted.

His spleen is possibly enlarged and close attention should be paid to further examination.

His spleen is possibly enlarged and further workup is warranted.

His spleen is definitely normal.

Question 5. Question : Diminished radial pulses may be seen in patients with which of the following?

Aortic insufficiency

Hyperthyroidism

Arterial emboli

Early “warm” septic shock

Question 6. Question : A 42-year-old florist comes to your office, complaining of chronic constipation for the last six months. She has had no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea, and no abdominal pain or cramping. She denies any recent illnesses or injuries. She denies any changes to her diet or exercise program. She is on no new medications. During the review of systems (ROS), you note that she has felt fatigued, had some weight gain, has irregular periods, and has cold intolerance. Her past medical history is significant for one vaginal delivery and two cesarean sections. She is married, has three children, and owns a flower shop. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has type 2 diabetes and her father has coronary artery disease. There is no family history of cancers. On examination, she appears her stated age. Her vital signs are normal. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. Her cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are also unremarkable. Her rectal occult blood test is negative. Her deep tendon reflexes are delayed in response to a blow with the hammer, especially the Achilles tendons.

What is the best choice for the cause of her constipation?

Large bowel obstruction

Irritable bowel syndrome

Rectal cancer

Hypothyroidism

Question 7. Question : A 57-year-old maintenance worker comes to your office for evaluation of pain in his legs. He has smoked two packs per day since the age of sixteen, but is otherwise healthy. You are concerned that he may have peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following is part of common or concerning symptoms for the peripheral vascular system?

Intermittent claudication

Chest pressure with exertion

Shortness of breath

Knee pain

Question 8. Question : You are assessing a 59-year-old gas station owner for atherosclerosis in the lower extremities. In which of the following locations would the patient’s pain make you concerned for this disease process?

Thigh

Knee

Calf

Ankle

Question 9. Question : A 55-year-old secretary with a recent history of breast cancer, for which she underwent surgery and radiation therapy, and a history of hypertension comes to your office for a routine checkup. Which of the following aspects of the physical are important to note when assessing the patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms?

Femoral pulse, popliteal pulse

Dorsalis pedis pulse, posterior tibial pulse

Carotid pulse

Radial pulse, brachial pulse

Question 10. Question : Cody is a teenager with a history of leukemia and an enlarged spleen. Today he presents with fairly significant left upper quadrant (LUQ) pain. On examination of this area, a rough grating noise is heard. What is this sound?

It is a splenic rub.

It is a variant of bowel noise.

It represents borborygmi.

It is a vascular noise.

Question 1.A 30-year-old woman with a history of mitral valve problems states that she has been “very tired.” She has started waking up at night and feels like her “heart is pounding.” During the assessment, the nurse practitioner palpates a thrill and lift at the fifth left intercostal space midclavicular line. In the same area the nurse practitioner also auscultates a blowing, swishing sound right after S1. These findings would be most consistent with:

heart failure.

aortic stenosis.

pulmonary edema.

mitral regurgitation.

Question 2. Question : A patient presents with excruciating headache pain on one side of his head, especially around his eye, forehead, and cheek that lasts about 1/2 to 2 hours, occurring once or twice each day. The nurse practitioner suspects:

hypertension.

cluster headaches.

tension headaches.

migraine headaches.

Question 3. Question : A patient complains that while studying for an examination he began to notice a severe headache in the frontotemporal area of his head that is throbbing and is somewhat relieved when he lies down. He tells the nurse practitioner that his mother also had these headaches. The nurse practitioner suspects that he may be suffering from:

hypertension.

cluster headaches.

tension headaches.

migraine headaches.

Question 4. Question : A patient tells the nurse practitioner that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot.” This type of data would be:

objective.

reflective.

subjective.

introspective

Question 5. Question : The most important reason to share information and offer brief teaching while performing the physical examination is to help:

the examiner feel more comfortable and gain control of the situation.

build rapport and increase the patient’s confidence in the examiner.

the patient understand his or her disease process and treatment modalities.

the patient identify questions about his or her disease and potential areas of patient education.

Question 6. Question : A patient says that she has recently noticed a lump in the front of her neck below her “Adam’s apple” that seems to be getting bigger. During the assessment, the finding that reassures the nurse practitioner that this may not be a cancerous thyroid nodule is that the lump (nodule):

is tender.

is mobile and not hard.

disappears when the patient smiles.

is hard and fixed to the surrounding structures.

Question 7. Question : A patient visits the clinic because he has recently noticed that the left side of his mouth is paralyzed. He states that he cannot raise his eyebrow or whistle. The nurse practitioner suspects that he has:

Cushing’s syndrome.

Parkinson’s syndrome.

Bell’s palsy.

had a cerebrovascular accident (stroke).

Question 8. Question : The temporomandibular joint is just below the temporal artery and anterior to the:

hyoid.

vagus.

tragus.

mandible.

Question 9. Question : During an examination of a patient’s abdomen, the nurse practitioner notes that the abdomen is rounded and firm to the touch. During percussion, the nurse practitioner notes a drum-like quality of the sound across the quadrants. This type of sound indicates:

constipation.

air-filled areas.

the presence of a tumor.

the presence of dense organs.

Question 10. Question : A patient tells the nurse that he is allergic to penicillin. What would be the nurse practitioner’s best response to this information?

“Are you allergic to any other drugs?”

“How often have you received penicillin?”

“I’ll write your allergy on your chart so you won’t receive any.

“Please describe what happens to you when you take penicillin.

Question 11. Question : A patient’s thyroid is enlarged, and the nurse practitioner is preparing to auscultate the thyroid for the presence of a bruit. A bruit is a:

low gurgling sound best heard with the diaphragm of the stethoscope.

loud, whooshing, blowing sound best heard with the bell of the stethoscope.

soft, whooshing, pulsatile sound best heard with the bell of the stethoscope.

high-pitched tinkling sound best heard with the diaphragm of the stethoscope.

Question 12. Question : After completing an initial assessment on a patient, the nurse practitioner has documented that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58. This type of data would be:

objective.

reflective.

subjective.

introspective.

Question 13. Question : A patient tells the nurse that she has had abdominal pain for the past week. What would be the best response by the nurse?

“Can you point to where it hurts?”

“We’ll talk more about that later in the interview.

“What have you had to eat in the last 24 hours?”

“Have you ever had any surgeries on your abdomen?”

Question 14. Question : A teenage patient comes to the emergency department with complaints of an inability to “breathe and a sharp pain in my left chest.” The assessment findings include the following: cyanosis, tachypnea, tracheal deviation to the right, decreased tactile fremitus on the left, hyperresonance on the left, and decreased breath sounds on the left. This description is consistent with:

bronchitis.

a pneumothorax.

acute pneumonia.

an asthmatic attack.

Question 15. Question : The inspection phase of the physical assessment:

yields little information.

takes time and reveals a surprising amount of information.

may be somewhat uncomfortable for the expert practitioner.

requires a quick glance at the patient’s body systems before proceeding on with palpation.

Question 16. Question : The mother of a 2-year-old is concerned because her son has had three ear infections in the past year. What would be an appropriate response by the nurse practitioner?

“It is unusual for a small child to have frequent ear infections unless there is something else wrong.

“We need to check the immune system of your son to see why he is having so many ear infections.

“Ear infections are not uncommon in infants and toddlers because they tend to have more cerumen in the external ear.

“Your son’s eustachian tube is shorter and wider than yours because of his age, which allows for infections to develop more easily.

Question 17. Question : The nurse practitioner would use bimanual palpation technique in which situation?

Palpating the thorax of an infant

Palpating the kidneys and uterus

Assessing pulsations and vibrations

Assessing the presence of tenderness and pain

Question 18. Question : The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:

database.

admitting data.

financial statement.

discharge summary.

Question 19. Question : When preparing to perform a physical examination on an infant, the examiner should:

have the parent remove all clothing except the diaper on a boy.

instruct the parent to feed the infant immediately before the exam.

encourage the infant to suck on a pacifier during the abdominal exam.

ask the parent to briefly leave the room when assessing the infant’s vital signs.

Question 20. Question : The nurse practitioner notices that an infant has a large, soft lump on the side of his head and that his mother is very concerned. She tells the nurse practitioner that she noticed the lump about 8 hours after her baby’s birth, and that it seems to be getting bigger. One possible explanation for this is:

hydrocephalus.

craniosynostosis.

cephalhematoma.

caput succedaneum.

Question 21. Question : When examining an infant, the nurse practitioner should examine which area first?

Ear

Nose

Throat

Abdomen

Question 22. Question : When preparing to examine a 6-year-old child, which action is most appropriate?

Start with the thorax, abdomen, and genitalia before examining the head.

Avoid talking about the equipment being used because it may increase the child’s anxiety.

Keep in mind that a child this age will have a sense of modesty.

Have the child undress from the waist up.

Question 23. Question : The nurse practitioner is assessing a patient’s skin during an office visit. What is the best technique to use to best assess the patient’s skin temperature?

Use the fingertips because they’re more sensitive to small changes in temperature.

Use the dorsal surface of the hand because the skin is thinner than on the palms.

Use the ulnar portion of the hand because there is increased blood supply that enhances temperature sensitivity.

Use the palmar surface of the hand because it is most sensitive to temperature variations because of increased nerve supply in this area.

Question 24. Question : Percussion notes heard during the abdominal assessment may include:

flatness, resonance, and dullness.

resonance, dullness, and tympany.

tympany, hyperresonance, and dullness.

resonance, hyperresonance, and flatness.

Question 25. Question : The nurse practitioner is assessing a patient for possible peptic ulcer disease and knows that which condition often causes this problem?

Hypertension

Streptococcus infections

History of constipation and frequent laxative use

Frequent use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

Question 1: You are participating in a health fair and performing cholesterol screens. One person has a cholesterol level of 225. She is concerned about her risk for developing heart disease. Which of the following factors is used to estimate the 10-year risk of developing coronary heart disease?

Ethnicity

Alcohol intake

Gender

Asthma

Question 2. Question : You are concerned that a patient has an aortic regurgitation murmur. Which is the best position to accentuate the murmur?

Upright

Upright, but leaning forward

Supine

Left lateral decubitus

Question 3. Question : You are screening people at the mall as part of a health fair. The first person who comes for screening has a blood pressure of 132/85. How would you categorize this?

Normal

Prehypertension

Stage 1 hypertension

Stage 2 hypertension

Question 4. Question : How should you determine whether a murmur is systolic or diastolic?

Palpate the carotid pulse.

Palpate the radial pulse.

Judge the relative length of systole and diastole by auscultation.

Correlate the murmur with a bedside heart monitor.

Question 5. Question : A 78-year-old retired seamstress comes to the office for a routine check-up. You obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG) because of her history of hypertension. You diagnose a previous myocardial infarction and ask her if she had any symptoms related to this.Which of the following symptoms would be more common in this patient’s  age group for an AMI?

Chest pain

Syncope

Pain radiating into the left arm

Pain radiating into the jaw

Question 6. Question : On examination, you find a bounding carotid pulse on a 62-year-old patient. Which murmur should you suspect?

Mitral valve prolapse

Pulmonic stenosis

Tricuspid insufficiency

Aortic insufficiency

Question 7. Question : Which of the following correlates with a sustained, high-amplitude point of maximal impulse (PMI)?

Hyperthyroidism

Anemia

Fever

Hypertension

Question 8. Question : A 68-year-old woman with hypertension and diabetes is seen by the nurse practitioner for a dry cough that worsens at night when she lies in bed. She has shortness of breath, which worsens when she exerts herself. The patient’s pulse rate is 90/min and regular. The patient has gained 6 lbs over the past two months. She is on a nitroglycerine patch and furosemide daily. The explanation for her symptoms is:

Kidney failure

Congestive heart failure

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor induced coughing

Thyroid disease

Question 9. Question : When listening to a soft murmur or bruit, which of the following may be necessary?

Asking the patient to hold their breath.

Asking the patient in the next bed to turn down the TV.

Checking your stethoscope for air leaks.

All of the above.

Question 10. Question : You notice a patient has a strong pulse and then a weak pulse. This pattern continues. Which of the following is likely?

Emphysema

Asthma exacerbation

Severe left heart failure

Cardiac tamponade

Question 1. Question : A patient complains of shortness of breath for the past few days. On examination, you note late inspiratory crackles in the lower third of the chest that were not present a week ago. What is the most likely explanation for these?

Asthma

COPD

Bronchiectasis

Heart failure

Question 2. Question : A sixty-year-old baker presents to your clinic, complaining of increasing shortness of breath and nonproductive cough over the last month. She feels like she can’t do as much activity as she used to do without becoming tired. She even has to sleep upright in her recliner at night to be able to breathe comfortably. She denies any chest pain, nausea, or sweating. Her past medical history is significant for high blood pressure and coronary artery disease. She had a hysterectomy in her 40s for heavy vaginal bleeding. She is married and is retiring from the local bakery soon. She denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother died of a stroke, and her father died from prostate cancer.She denies any  recent upper respiratory illness, and she has had no other symptoms. On examination, she is in no acute distress. Her blood pressure is 160/100, and her pulse is 100. She is afebrile, and her respiratory rate is 16. With auscultation, she has distant air sounds and she has late inspiratory crackles in both lower lobes. On cardiac examination, the S1 and S2 are distant and an S3 is heard over the apex.

Pneumonia

COPD

Pleural pain

Left-sided heart failure

Question 3. Question : A patient with long-standing COPD was told by another practitioner that his liver was enlarged and this needed to be assessed. Which of the following would be reasonable to do next?

Percuss the lower border of the liver.

Measure the span of the liver.

Order a hepatitis panel.

Obtain an ultrasound of the liver.

Question 4. Question : A fifty-five-year-old smoker complains of chest pain and gestures with a closed fist over her sternum to describe it. Which of the following diagnoses should be considered because of her gesture?

Bronchitis

Costochondritis

Pericarditis

Angina pectoris

Question 5. Question : When crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi clear with a cough, which of the following is a likely etiology?

Bronchitis

Simple asthma

Cystic fibrosis

Heart failure

Question 6. Question : Is the following information subjective or objective? Mr. Mazz has shortness of breath that has persisted for the past ten days; it is worse with activity and relieved by rest.

Subjective

Objective

Question 7. Question : All of the following are implicated in causing chronic cough except:

Chronic bronchitis

Allergic rhinitis

Acute viral upper respiratory infection

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

Question 8. Question : A mother brings her infant to you because of a “rattle” in his chest with breathing. Which of the following would you hear if there is a problem in the upper airway?

Different sounds from the nose and the chest

Asymmetric sounds

Inspiratory sounds

Sounds louder in the lower chest

Question 9. Question : Which of the following is consistent with good percussion technique?

Allow all of the fingers to touch the chest while performing percussion.

Maintain a stiff wrist and hand.

Leave the plexor finger on the pleximeter after each strike.

Strike the pleximeter over the distal interphalangeal joint.

NURS 6231: HEALTHCARE SYSTEMS AND QUALITY OUTCOMES – 2025 THIS IS A 2 PART ASSIGNMENT THE ORGANIZATION THAT I NEED THIS TO

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NURS 6231: HEALTHCARE SYSTEMS AND QUALITY OUTCOMES – 2025

THIS IS A 2 PART ASSIGNMENT. THE ORGANIZATION THAT I NEED THIS TO BE ON IS : Regional One Health, located in Memphis, TN. The quality improvement issue is RN/nurse Retention.

Project: Promoting Health Care

Section 3: Quality Measurement and Assessment

This week you continue working on Section 3 of your Course Project, which was introduced in Week 6. Through your work in previous weeks of this course, you have likely gained critical insights into the organization that serves as the focus for your quality improvement plan. Integrating this knowledge of the organization into your plan for addressing a quality improvement issue is essential for successfully facilitating change.

As you deepen your analysis of your selected organization, consider how the information presented in this week’s Learning Resources relates to strategic priorities as well as to the uniquely collaborative and competitive dynamic that binds organizations in health care.

To prepare:

  • Think about the quality improvement issue that you are addressing and the associated plan that you are developing. Consider the following:
    • What is the overall purpose, or aim, of doing this work?
    • What would you hope to achieve for the organization by undertaking this project? What are the objectives of this initiative?
    • What value would this work add to the organization?
    • How would this work improve practice and create outcomes with impact?
  • Review Chapter 7 of the Sadeghi, Barzi, Mikhail, and Shabot course text. Consider how addressing this quality improvement issue would align with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategic goals and objectives. How does it relate to regulatory issues, and other matters that are significant for the organization? If you notice a misalignment, use this as an opportunity to refine your focus.
  • With this in mind, continue to hone your development of this Assignment, integrating the concepts addressed here into Section 3.

To complete:

Write a 3- to 5-page paper that includes:

  • An introduction to your quality improvement plan, including the overarching aim of this initiative and an explanation of how it aligns with the mission, vision, values, and strategic goals and objectives of the organization, as well as regulatory issues and other matters that are significant for the organization
  • An overview of the current situation with regard to this quality improvement issue in the organization
  • A description of measures and indicators
  • A presentation on data related to this issue, including:
    • Actual historical and current data and/or a description of the methods that you would use to collect and analyze the data
    • Methods for collecting and analyzing data in the future, including when you would do this
  • A description of realistic, evidence-based targets

Be sure to cite evidence from the literature to justify your selection of the measures and indicators, as well as the performance targets. This section of the Course Project serves as the Portfolio Assignment for this course.

Due by Day 7 of Week 8.

Section 4: Quality Improvement Strategies

Through your work on Section 3 of the Course Project, you have examined the gap between current performance and evidence-based targets and considered how addressing this gap relates to organizational priorities and large-scale aims for quality improvement.

In this section of the Course Project, you begin to think about quality improvement strategies that could help to bridge this gap. As noted in the Sadeghi, Barzi, Mikhail, and Shabot text, this is referred to as performance-driven planning.

Since the publication of the Institute of Medicine’s report “Crossing the Quality Chasm,” a good deal of attention has been paid to the need to examine processes that contribute to outcomes (Ernst, Wooldridge, Conway, Dressman, Weiland, Tucker, and Seid). As the USAID has noted, interventions “will not create the desired outcome to improve the quality of care unless the overall process of care delivery is also improved.” Therefore, attention to process redesign is a central aspect of cultivating strategies for improvement.

To prepare:

  • Refer to the modified Donabedian model (access, structure, process, outcome, and patient experience) presented in Chapter 9 of the Sadeghi, Barzi, Mikhail, and Shabot text.
  • Recall the performance targets that you identified for Section 3 (in Week 6). What does the recommendation that performance-driven planning should “begin with the end in mind” suggest given your established goals?
  • Review the information presented in Chapter 9 of the Sadeghi, Barzi, Mikhail, and Shabot text, and think about how you would assess the organization’s strengths and weaknesses related to the performance gaps you identified in Section 3 (Week 6).
  • Based on the above, start to think of specific evidence-based strategies that could be implemented to close/minimize the performance gaps you have identified. Consider both interventions (what) and processes (how). Focus on strategies that are supported by the latest research and could create systems-level change. These may be tentative for now, but be sure to identify at least one that specifically lends itself to a change in process (i.e., practice, protocol, pathway, activity).

Additional instructions for Section 4 are presented next week. To complete this Assignment, you will create a process map and write a paper describing quality improvement strategies. This Assignment is due by Day 7 of Week 8.

PART 2 OF THIS ASSIGNMENT:

Respond to at least two of your colleagues on two different days using one or more of the following approaches:

  • Ask a probing question, substantiated with additional background information or research.
  • Share an insight from having read your colleagues’ postings, synthesizing the information to provide new perspectives.
  • Validate an idea with your own experience and additional resources.
Submission and Grading Information
Grading Criteria

To access your rubric:
Week 8 Discussion Rubric

Post by Day 3 and Respond by Day 6

To participate in this Discussion:
Week 8 Discussion

Project 1: Promoting Health Care Quality

Section 3: Quality Measurement and Assessment

By Day 7

Review the complete Assignment description presented in Weeks 6 and 7. Submit Section 3.

Submission and Grading Information

To submit your completed Project for review and grading, do the following:

Grading Criteria

To access your rubric:
Week 8 Project 1 Rubric

Check Your Project Draft for Authenticity

To check your Assignment draft for authenticity:
Submit your Week 8 Project 1 draft and review the originality report.

Submit Your Project by Day 7

To submit your Project:
Week 8 Project 1

Project 2: Promoting Health Care Quality

Section 4: Quality Improvement Strategies

Throughout this course you have been considering the relationship between structure, process, and outcomes as it relates to health care quality. Looking at outcomes, alone, may not tell the “whole story.” For instance, if you are concerned with improving fall rates, evaluating the process—related activities or practices—can help you identify factors that contribute to outcomes and develop strategies for improving them.

For this section of your Course Project, you create a process map to examine a current process related to your quality improvement issue. You will use the results of the process mapping to redesign a process to help minimize or close the performance gap(s). As you proceed, keep in mind the importance of maintaining a patient-centered focus so the patient experience is not negatively affected by any changes in process.

To prepare:

To complete:

By Day 7

Submit your paper and process map.

Submission and Grading Information

To submit your completed Project for review and grading, do the following:

Grading Criteria

To access your rubric:
Week 8 Project 2 Rubric

NURS 6241 Strategic Planning in Healthcare Organizations – 2025 Post by Day 3 and Respond by Day 6 To participate in this Discussion Week 8 Discussion Course Project

Nursing Assignment Help

NURS 6241 Strategic Planning in Healthcare Organizations – 2025

Post by Day 3 and Respond by Day 6

To participate in this Discussion:
Week 8 Discussion

Course Project: Developing a Strategic Plan

Section 3: Balanced Scorecard

As you continue to develop your Course Project, it is important to consider how to evaluate the effects of your planned change on performance. Based on the work you have done thus far on your Course Project, this week you create a balanced scorecard.

To prepare:

Section 3: Balanced Scorecard

To prepare:

As introduced in Week 8,continue to refine your balanced scorecard. (Refer to Week 8 for the preparatory instructions as necessary.) Your balanced scorecard is one tool you can use to evaluate the effects of your planned change on performance.

To complete:

  • Create a balanced scorecard that could be used to measure and evaluate the impact of your planned change on performance, and determine if the costs are justified in terms of the outcomes.
  • Include what you would measure in terms of finances, customers, internal process, and learning and growth.

Section 4: Budgeting and Timeline Tools

As you have been examining this week, budgeting and timeline tools are vital for determining necessary resources and planning for a proposed change. For your Course Project, you use these types of tools to assess resources that may be required for the successful implementation of your strategic plan.

To prepare:

  • Review the information on budgeting in this week’s Learning Resources. Which tools (e.g., Revenue Projection Model, Capital Budgeting Analysis, Depreciation Calculator, Profit and Loss Projection) would be most useful for developing your strategic plan? 
  • Use one or more budgeting tools to outline the financial resources for your proposed change. Reflect on any challenges that arise as you evaluate the financial resources required for this change now and in the future.
  • Review the information on PERT and other timeline tools in this week’s Learning Resources, including Dr. Huston’s presentation in the media program.
  • Use PERT or another tool to analyze and represent the activities that need to be completed to successfully plan and implement your proposed change. Be sure to note dependencies (e.g., a task/milestone that must be completed in order to trigger the next step) and realistically assess the minimum time needed to complete the entire project.  

To complete:

  • Outline the financial resources for your proposed change. Describe the budgeting tool(s) you used to arrive at these determinations. Explain what challenges, if any, you encountered through the budgeting process. Provide documentation (e.g., Excel worksheets) to support your analysis.
  • Outline the timeline for the implementation of your proposed change using PERT or another timeline tool. Consider how your timeline can allow leeway for variance.