For this project, you will select and critique a nursing theory of your choice.  You will:

1. Write an original paper.
2. Submit it to the dropbox for a grade based on the rubric.

The following are some conceptual models and theories you may choose from; however, you may choose any nurse theorist:

• Florence Nightengale’s Environmental Model
• Dorothy Johnson’s Behavioral System Model
• Hildegard Peplau’s Interpersonal Process Theory
• Dorothea Orem’s Self-Care Deficit Theory
• Ida Jean Orlando’s Nursing Process
• Sister Calista Roy’s Adaptation Model
• Madeleine Leininger’s Theory of Culture Care Diversity and Universality
• Jean Watson’s Nursing as Caring Theory
• Margaret Newman’s Health Expanding Consciousness
• Martha Roger’s Science of Unitary of Human Being
• Abdellah’s Patient-Centered Approaches Theory

Steps to follow to do your critique:

• You can visit the Fitne website to watch videos about the above mentioned theorist.
• You  can use the Internet to find a journal or articles that provides an  analysis and critique of a theory of nursing as a resource to start  working with your own critique. 
• You need to login entering the following information:
    
  • Username: medical center campus
  • Password: medical
  • Under the Nurse Theorists: Portraits of Excellence (Volume I) link select the theorist of your choice
  • On the left navigation area select a topic to view
     
• You must use the criteria for analysis and critique of theories in Chapter 1 of the George text book. 
• You  will select the link “Library Resources” found under the “NUR3846 –  Library” tab (located on left-side of screen) to do your research and  complete your literature review of the model/theory you selected.
• You may physically visit the library in person as well, and ask for help from the library staff.

Your critique must have the following headings and follow APA Guidelines.

  Topic Description    

Meaning

(30 pts.)

 

• Describe the main ideas of the theory (should include the assumptions under which the theory operates).
   
• What are the main concepts?
   
• What are the main relationships between the concepts?
   
• How do different concepts affect each other?
   

 

Origins of the Theory

(30 pts.)

 

• What was going on in the profession of nursing or in American society that may have influenced the theory?
   
• What values, theories, evidence, and/or existing knowledge did the theorist cite as support for the theory?
   
• What motivated the theorist to write the theory?
   
• What approach to theory development did the theorist use?
   

 

Usefulness

(20 pts.)

 

• How useful is this theory in practice?
   
• Is the theory practical and helpful to nursing?
   
• Does it contribute to understanding and predicting outcomes?
   
• Cite an example/case study where this theory could be used.
   

 

Testability

(10 pts.)

 

• How testable is this theory?
   
• Has this theory generated research? How many and what types of studies?
   
• Give one example of a study done using the theory
   
• What types of statements are the propositions?
   

 

Overall Evaluation

(10 pts.)

 

• Is the theory comprehensive and specific?
   
• How general is the theory?
   
• Summarize the strengths and weaknesses of the theory.
   
• Why  would you use or not use this theory in your own advanced practice?  (Begin to think about the your presentation “Synthesis of Nursing  Theory”).
   

  

                                                                     Asthma

Complications of asthma can be sudden. Consider the case of Bradley Wilson, a young boy who had several medical conditions. He appeared in good health when he went to school, returned home, and ate dinner. However, when he later went outside to play, he came back inside wheezing. An ambulance took him to the hospital where he was pronounced dead (Briscoe, 2012). In another case, 10-year-old Dynasty Reese, who had mild asthma, woke up in the middle of the night and ran to her grandfather’s bedroom to tell him she couldn’t breathe. By the time paramedics arrived, she had passed out and was pronounced dead at the hospital (Glissman, 2012). These situations continue to outline the importance of recognizing symptoms of asthma and providing immediate treatment, as well as distinguishing minor symptoms from serious, life-threatening symptoms. Since these symptoms and attacks are often induced by a trigger, as an advanced practice nurse, you must be able to help patients identify their triggers and recommend appropriate treatment options. For this reason, you need to understand the pathophysiological mechanisms of chronic asthma and acute asthma exacerbation.

To Prepare

· Review “Asthma” in Chapter 27 of the Huether and McCance text. Identify the pathophysiological mechanisms of chronic asthma and acute asthma exacerbation. Consider how these disorders are similar and different.

· Select a patient factor different from the one you selected in this week’s Discussion: genetics, gender, ethnicity, age, or behavior. Think about how the factor you selected might impact the pathophysiology of both disorders. Reflect on how you would diagnose and prescribe treatment of these disorders for a patient based on the factor you selected.

· Review the “Mind maps—Dementia, Endocarditis, and Gastro-oesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)” media in the Week 2 Learning Resources. Use the examples in the media as a guide to construct two mind maps—one for chronic asthma and one for acute asthma exacerbation. Consider the epidemiology and clinical presentation of both chronic asthma and acute asthma exacerbation.

To Complete

Write a 2- to 3-page paper that addresses the following:

· Describe the pathophysiological mechanisms of chronic asthma and acute asthma exacerbation. Be sure to explain the changes in the arterial blood gas patterns during an exacerbation.

· Explain how the factor you selected might impact the pathophysiology of both disorders. Describe how you would diagnose and prescribe treatment for a patient based on the factor you selected.

· Construct two mind maps—one for chronic asthma and one for acute asthma exacerbation. Include the epidemiology, pathophysiology, and clinical presentation, as well as the diagnosis and treatment you explained in your paper.

                                                               Learning Resources

Required Readings

Huether, S. E., & McCance, K. L. (2017). Understanding pathophysiology (6th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Mosby.

• Chapter 26, “Structure and      Function of the Pulmonary System”

This chapter provides information relating to the structure and function of the pulmonary system to illustrate normal pulmonary function. It focuses on gas transport to build the foundation for examining alterations of pulmonary function.

• Chapter 27, “Alterations of      Pulmonary Function”

This chapter examines clinical manifestations of pulmonary alterations and disorders of the chest wall and pleura. It covers the pathophysiology, clinical manifestations, evaluation, and treatment of obstructive lung diseases such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), chronic bronchitis, and emphysema.

• Chapter 28, “Alterations of      Pulmonary Function in Children”

This chapter focuses on alterations of pulmonary function that affect children. These alterations include disorders of the upper and lower airways.

Hammer, G. G. , & McPhee, S. (2014). Pathophysiology of disease: An introduction to clinical medicine. (7th ed.) New York, NY: McGraw-Hill Education.

• Chapter 9, “Pulmonary      Disease”

This chapter begins with an overview of normal structure and function of the lungs to provide a foundation for examining various lung diseases such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

Required Media

Laureate Education, Inc. (Executive Producer). (2012e). Mid-course review. Baltimore, MD: Author.

This media is an interactive mid-course review covering course content.

Optional Resources

American Lung Association. (2012). Retrieved from http://www.lung.org/ 

Asthma and Allergy Foundation of America. (2012). Retrieved from http://www.aafa.org 

Cystic Fibrosis Foundation. (2012). Retrieved from http://www.cff.org/ 

This is a discussion post, about 250 WORDS, tittle page not require In- text citation is required original work please, reference source, website source strongly preferred

QUESTION 2

Personal affiliations and networking are important for nursing leaders. Why are these important? How will they benefit you in your career future? Identify two affiliations or a situation in which you have networked for the health of a population or your community.

NR 507 Week No. 1 Quiz

1. Question : Which statement is true about fungal infections?

2. Question : Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis?

3. Question : After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.

4. Question : What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

5. Question : Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

6. Question : Which statement about vaccines is true?

7. Question : The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is

8. Question : In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?

9. Question : During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?

10. Question : Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

11. Question : Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n)

12. Question : In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of

13. Question : What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?

14. Question : During a stress response, increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal is prompted by

15. Question : Stress-age syndrome results in decreased

16. Question : Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?

17. Question : What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?

18. Question : Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that

19. Question : Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue?

20. Question : Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

21. Question : Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of

22. Question : Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

23. Question : In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

24. Question : Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except

25. Question : Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increases susceptibility to cancer except

NR 507 Week No. 2 Quiz

  

1. Question: In hyperkalemia, cardiac rhythm changes are a direct result of cardiac cell hypopolarization.

2. Question: When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated? 

3. Question: Which are indications of dehydration? 

4. Question: At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

5. Question: Which enzyme is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney when circulating blood volume is reduced? 

6. Question: Why are infants susceptible to significant losses in total body water (TBW)? 

7. Question: Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of 

8. Question: In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the compression on the pores of Kohn, thus preventing collateral ventilation.

9. Question: Dyspnea is not a result of 

10. Question: Clinical manifestations of pulmonary hypertension include 

11. Question: Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg. 

12. Question: Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of 

13. Question: Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration? 

14. Question: A(n) _____ is a circumscribed area of suppuration and destruction of lung parenchyma

15. Question: Which of the following is a true statement? 

16. Question: High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through 

17. Question: The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with 

18. Question: In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating 

19. Question: The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing 

20. Question: An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n) 

21. Question: What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn? 

22. Question: Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n) 

23. Question: Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults. 

24. Question: Which of the following types of croup is most common? 

25. Question: Which of the following statements about the advances in the treatment of RDS of the newborn is incorrect? 

NR 507 Week No. 3 Quiz

  

• Question 1. A 72-year-old woman with a recent onset of syncopal episodes has been referred to a cardiology group by her family physician. As part of the patient’s diagnostic workup, the nurse practitioner conducting the intake assessment has ordered a Holter monitor for 24 hours. Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of Holter monitoring? 

• Question 2. As part of the diagnostic workup for a male patient with a complex history of cardiovascular disease, the care team has identified the need for a record of the electrical activity of his heart, insight into the metabolism of his myocardium, and physical measurements, and imaging of his heart. Which of the following series of tests is most likely to provide the needed data for his diagnosis and care? 

• Question 3. An 81-year-old female patient of a long-term care facility has a history of congestive heart failure. The nurse practitioner caring for the patient has positioned her sitting up at an angle in bed and is observing her jugular venous distention. Why is jugular venous distention a useful indicator for the assessment of the patient’s condition? 

• Question 4. A physical assessment of a 28-year-old female patient indicates that her blood pressure in her legs is lower than that in her arms and that her brachial pulse is weaker in her left arm than in her right. In addition, her femoral pulses are weak bilaterally. Which of the following possibilities would her care provider be most likely to suspect? 

• Question 5. A 6-year-old boy has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance after his mother discovered that his heart rate was “so fast I couldn’t even count it.” The child was determined to be in atrial flutter and his mother is seeking an explanation from the health care team. Which of the following points should underlie an explanation to the mother? 

• Question 6. A 66-year-old patient’s echocardiogram reveals a hypertrophied left ventricle, normal chamber volume, and a normal ejection fraction from the heart. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis? 

• Question 7. A 70-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his calf that is exacerbated when he walks. His pedal and popliteal pulses are faintly palpable and his leg distal to the pain is noticeably reddened. What would his care provider’s preliminary diagnosis and anticipated treatment most likely be? 

• Question 8. A patient in the intensive care unit has a blood pressure of 87/39 and has warm, flushed skin accompanying his sudden decline in level of consciousness. The patient also has arterial and venous dilation and a decrease in systemic vascular resistance. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis? 

• Question 9. A 31-year-old woman with a congenital heart defect reports episodes of lightheadedness and syncope, with occasional palpitations. A resting electrocardiogram reveals sinus bradycardia and she is suspected of having sick sinus syndrome. Which of the following diagnostic methods is the best choice to investigate the suspicion? 

• Question 10. A nurse practitioner is providing care for several patients on a medical unit of a hospital. In which of the following patient situations would the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out hypertension as a contributing factor? 

• Question 11. A patient is experiencing impaired circulation secondary to increased systemic arterial pressure. Which of the following statements is the most relevant phenomenon? 

• Question 12. A number of patients have presented to the emergency department in the last 24 hours with complaints that are preliminarily indicative of myocardial infarction. Which of the following patients is least likely to have an ST-segment myocardial infarction (STEMI)? 

• Question 13. A formerly normotensive woman, pregnant for the first time, develops hypertension and headaches at 26 weeks’ gestation. Her blood pressure is 154/110 mm Hg and she has proteinuria. What other labs should be ordered for her? 

• Question 14. An older adult female patient has presented with a new onset of shortness of breath, and the patient’s nurse practitioner has ordered measurement of her BNP levels along with other diagnostic tests. What is the most accurate rationale for the nurse practitioner’s choice of blood work? 

• Question 15. The nurse practitioner for a cardiology practice is responsible for providing presurgical teaching for patients who are about to undergo a coronary artery bypass graft. Which of the following teaching points best conveys an aspect of the human circulatory system? 

• Question 16. A 54-year-old man with a long-standing diagnosis of essential hypertension is meeting with his nurse practitioner. The patient’s nurse practitioner would anticipate that which of the following phenomena is most likely occurring? 

• Question 17. A 22-year-old male is experiencing hypovolemic shock following a fight in which his carotid artery was cut with a broken bottle. What immediate treatments are likely to most benefit the man? 

• Question 18. A 66-year-old obese man with a diagnosis of ischemic heart disease has been diagnosed with heart failure that his care team has characterized as attributable to systolic dysfunction. Which of the following assessment findings is inconsistent with his diagnosis? 

• Question 19. A 68-year-old male complains to his nurse practitioner that when he tests his blood pressure using a machine at his pharmacy, his heart rate is nearly always very low. At other times, he feels that his heart is racing, and it also seems to pause at times. The man has also occasionally had lightheadedness and a recent syncopal episode. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis and the phenomenon underlying it? 

• Question 20. An autopsy is being performed on a 44-year-old female who died unexpectedly of heart failure. Which of the following components of the pathologist’s report is most suggestive of a possible history of poorly controlled blood pressure? 

• Question 21. During a routine physical examination of a 66-year-old woman, her nurse practitioner notes a pulsating abdominal mass and refers the woman for further treatment. The nurse practitioner is explaining the diagnosis to the patient, who is unfamiliar with aneurysms. Which of the following aspects of the pathophysiology of aneurysms would underlie the explanation the nurse provides? 

• Question 22. A patient has suffered damage to his pericardium following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following consequences should the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out? 

• Question 23. A nurse practitioner is instructing a group of older adults about the risks associated with high cholesterol. Which of the following teaching points should the participants try to integrate into their lifestyle after the teaching session? 

• Question 24. An 81-year-old male resident of a long-term care facility has a long-standing diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following short-term and longer-term compensatory mechanisms is least likely to decrease the symptoms of his heart failure? 

• Question 25. A 55-year-old male who is beginning to take a statin drug for his hypercholesterolemia is discussing cholesterol and its role in health and illness with his nurse practitioner. Which of the following aspects of hyperlipidemia would the nurse practitioner most likely take into account when teaching the patient?

NR 507 Week No. 5 Quiz

  

1. Question : Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?

2. Question : Where is oxytocin synthesized?

3. Question : Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone?

4. Question : Which mineral is needed for the synthesis of thyroid hormones?

5. Question : The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is the _____ pituitary.

6. Question : Hormones are effective communicators because they

7. Question : What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?

8. Question : What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor (PRF)?

9. Question : Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the

10. Question : Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located

11. Question : A surgical individual just arrived on the unit from the postanesthesia care unit. This person’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the person suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?

12. Question : Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?

13. Question : The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in Graves disease is usually

14. Question : Which of the following laboratory values is consistently low in a client with diabetes insipidus (DI)?

15. Question : Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of

16. Question : The first lab test that indicates type 1 diabetes is causing the development of diabetic nephropathy is

17. Question : A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?

18. Question : Visual disturbances are a result of a pituitary adenoma because of the

19. Question : Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by

20. Question : Which of the following clinical manifestations is not common to both diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS)?

21. Question : The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the

22. Question : The most probable cause of low serum calcium following a thyroidectomy is

23. Question : Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if a person is experiencing syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

24. Question : A person with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is

25. Question : The effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) include solute

NR 507 Week No. 6 Quiz

  

1. Question : _____ is a chronic inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints.

2. Question : What pattern of bone destruction is described as not well defined and not easily separated from normal bone?

3. Question : _____ is the temporary displacement of two bones in which the bone surfaces partially lose contact.

4. Question : Which of the following attaches skeletal muscle to bone?

5. Question : Which statement is false about giant cell tumors?

6. Question : Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of RANKL on osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

7. Question : What is the diagnosis of a person who has tennis elbow characterized by tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi brevis tendon?

8. Question : Cerebral palsy is usually a result of

9. Question : Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with

10. Question : Ewing sarcoma arises from

11. Question : Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane?

12. Question : Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is likely inherited from one’s

13. Question : The pain experienced in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is referred to as involving

14. Question : The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value?

15. Question : An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children.

16. Question : Which type of psoriasis is characterized by lesions on the elbows and knees that are well demarcated, thick, silvery, scaly, and erythematous?

17. Question : Women who develop hirsutism may be secreting hormones associated with

18. Question : An older adult man states he has a sore above his lip that has not healed and is getting bigger. The nurse observes a red scaly patch with an ulcerated center and sharp margins. The nurse recognizes these features as commonly associated with Bowen disease, a form of

19. Question : Which receptors of the autonomic nervous system regulate heat loss through the skin?

20. Question : Treatment for frostbite includes

21. Question : Rubeola is a highly contagious acute _____ disease in children.

22. Question : What is a common source of tinea corporis?

23. Question : Which skin disorder has as its hallmark clinical manifestation skin lesions that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust?

24. Question : Which of the following viral diseases has an incubation period of 14 to 21 days and a duration of 1 to 4 days?

25. Question : What is the cause of chickenpox?

NR 507 Week No. 7 Quiz

  

1. Question : Cerebral edema is an increase in the fluid content of the

2. Question : Vomiting is associated with CNS injuries that compress which anatomic location(s)?

3. Question : What is the best prognostic indicator of recovery of consciousness or functional outcome?

4. Question : With receptive dysphasia (fluent), the individual is able to

5. Question : The body compensates to a rise in intracranial pressure by first displacing

6. Question : Characteristics of primary motor neuron amyotrophy include

7. Question : In Parkinson disease (PD), the basal ganglia influences the hypothalamic function to produce which grouping of clinical manifestations?

8. Question : What pathologic alteration produces tremors at rest, rigidity, akinesia, and postural abnormalities?

9. Question : Multiple sclerosis (MS) and Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) are similar in that they both

10. Question : The edema of the upper cervical cord after spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of

11. Question : A man who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury 2 days ago suddenly develops severe hypertension and bradycardia. He reports severe head pain and blurred vision. The most likely explanation for these clinical manifestations is that he is

12. Question : Spinal cord injuries are most likely to occur in which of the following regions?

13. Question : Which neurotransmitter receptors are blocked by antipsychotic drugs?

14. Question : Which neurotransmitter is inhibited in generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

15. Question : Which electrolyte imbalance contributes to lithium toxicity?

16. Question : A _____ is the test done on amniotic fluid and maternal blood to test for neural tube defect.

17. Question : Anterior midline defects of neural tube closure cause developmental defects in the

18. Question : The clinical manifestations of dyskinetic cerebral palsy include

19. Question : A person who has cholera would be expected to have which type of diarrhea?

20. Question : The most common manifestation of portal hypertension induced splenomegaly is

21. Question : The desire to eat is stimulated by

22. Question : Meconium _____ is an intestinal obstruction caused by meconium formed in utero that is abnormally sticky and adheres firmly to the mucosa of the small intestine.

23. Question : Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of the _____ nervous system.

24. Question : Which disorder is characterized by an increase in the percentages in T cells and complement together with IgA and IgM antigliadin antibodies found in jejunum fluid?

25. Question : Which of the following medications compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis?

Review “Code of Fair Testing Practices in Education,” located on the American Psychological Association:  https://www.apa.org/science/programs/testing/fair-testing.pdf  What are your thoughts after reading the document? Did you realize it existed? How does the code apply to nursing education? The “Code of Fair Testing Practices in Education” is over 10 years old. Is it still relevant today? Why? If not, how should it be revised? Use correct APA format when citing.