2025 Ms Jones brings 6 week old Sam to the clinic because of a bright red rash in the diaper area that has

NUR600- DISCUSSION 2 2025

Ms. Jones brings 6-week-old Sam to the clinic because of a bright red rash in the diaper area that has gotten worse since she started putting over-the-counter antibiotic cream on it 3 days ago. Sam is diagnosed with diaper Candida or a yeast infection. Clotrimazole (Lotrimin) topical TID for 14 days to the diaper area has been prescribed. Briefly describe the therapeutic actions of Clotrimazole (Lotrimin). Develop a teaching plan for Ms. Jones including age-appropriate considerations for Sam. Submission Instructions: Your initial post should be at least 500 words, formatted and cited in current APA style with support from at least 2 academic sources.

Nursing Assignment Help 2025

2025 Realtors rely on detailed property appraisals conducted using appraisal tools to assign market values to houses and

EBP module 4: Critical Appraisal of Research 2025

Realtors rely on detailed property appraisals—conducted using appraisal tools—to assign market values to houses and other properties. These values are then presented to buyers and sellers to set prices and initiate offers. Research appraisal is not that different. The critical appraisal process utilizes formal appraisal tools to assess the results of research to determine value to the context at hand. Evidence-based practitioners often present these findings to make the case for specific courses of action. In this Assignment, you will use an appraisal tool to conduct a critical appraisal of published research. You will then present the results of your efforts. To Prepare: Reflect on the four peer-reviewed articles you selected in Module 2 and the four systematic reviews (or other filtered high- level evidence) you selected in Module 3. Reflect on the four peer-reviewed articles you selected in Module 2 and analyzed in Module 3. Review and download the Critical Appraisal Tool Worksheet Template provided in the Resources. The Assignment (Evidence-Based Project) Part 4A: Critical Appraisal of Research Conduct a critical appraisal of the four peer-reviewed articles you selected by completing the Evaluation Table within the Critical Appraisal Tool Worksheet Template. Choose a total of four peer- reviewed articles that you selected related to your clinical topic of interest in Module 2 and Module 3. Note : You can choose any combination of articles from Modules 2 and 3 for your Critical Appraisal. For example, you may choose two unfiltered research articles from Module 2 and two filtered research articles (systematic reviews) from Module 3 or one article from Module 2 and three articles from Module 3. You can choose any combination of articles from the prior Module Assignments as long as both modules and types of studies are represented. Part 4B: Critical Appraisal of Research Based on your appraisal, in a 1-2-page critical appraisal, suggest a best practice that emerges from the research you reviewed. Briefly explain the best practice, justifying your proposal with APA citations of the research.

Nursing Assignment Help 2025

2025 PLEASE FOLLOW THE INSTRUCTIONS AS INDICATED BELOW 1 ZERO 0 PLAGIARISM 2 ATLEAST 5

Discussion: Developing a Culture of Evidence-Based Practice 2025

PLEASE FOLLOW THE INSTRUCTIONS AS INDICATED BELOW: 1). ZERO (0) PLAGIARISM 2). ATLEAST 5 REFERENCES, NO MORE THAN 5 YEARS 3). PLEASE SEE THE FOLLOWING ATTACHMENT FOR RUBRIC DETAILS, 4 ARTICLES FORM SCHOOL RESOURCES (IF THESE ARTICLES ARE NOT HELPFUL OR GOOD ENOUGH, PLEASE FIND YOUR OWN) Please carefully review the grading rubric, especially the first column that says, “Excellent”, and please include each component in the assignment requirements. 4). Please Include Introduction, purpose statement, conclusion, and reference page, (APA formatting) THANK YOU. As your EBP skills grow, you may be called upon to share your expertise with others. While EBP practice is often conducted with unique outcomes in mind, EBP practitioners who share their results can both add to the general body of knowledge and serve as an advocate for the application of EBP. In this Discussion, you will explore strategies for disseminating EBP within your organization, community, or industry. To Prepare: Review the Resources and reflect on the various strategies presented throughout the course that may be helpful in disseminating effective and widely cited EBP. This may include: unit-level or organizational-level presentations, poster presentations, and podium presentations at organizational, local, regional, state, and national levels, as well as publication in peer-reviewed journals. Reflect on which type of dissemination strategy you might use to communicate EBP. Post at least two dissemination strategies you would be most inclined to use and explain why. Explain which dissemination strategies you would be least inclined to use and explain why. Identify at least two barriers you might encounter when using the dissemination strategies you are most inclined to use. Be specific and provide examples. Explain how you might overcome the barriers you identified.

Nursing Assignment Help 2025

2025 See the complete instructions attached document To Prepare Reflect on strategies that you can pursue

Discussion NURS6003 – Week 8 2025

See the complete instructions attached document To Prepare: Reflect on strategies that you can pursue in developing portfolios or portfolio elements that focus on academic achievements. Review one or more samples from your own research of resources focused on portfolio development. By Day 3 of Week 8 Post an explanation of at least two strategies for including academic activities and accomplishments into your professional development goals. Then, explain how those goals may align with the University’s emphasis on social change. Be specific and provide examples.

Nursing Assignment Help 2025

2025 Write a 1 page paper that addresses the following Explain your diagnosis for the

Pharm Gastroenteritis 2025

Write a 1+ page paper that addresses the following: Explain your diagnosis for the patient, including your rationale for the diagnosis. Describe an appropriate drug therapy plan based on the patient’s history, diagnosis, and drugs currently prescribed. Justify why you would recommend this drug therapy plan for this patient. Be specific and provide examples. Case study assigned Patient HL comes into the clinic with the following symptoms: nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The patient has a history of drug abuse and possible Hepatitis C. HL is currently taking the following prescription drugs: Synthroid 100 mcg daily Nifedipine 30 mg daily Prednisone 10 mg daily

Nursing Assignment Help 2025

2025 Description Alma Faulkenberger is an 85 year old female outpatient sitting in the waiting room awaiting an invasive pelvic procedure The

DQ1 2025

Description Alma Faulkenberger is an 85-year-old female outpatient sitting in the waiting room awaiting an invasive pelvic procedure. The health care professional who will assist in her procedure enters the room and calls “Alma.” There is no reply so the professional retreats to the work area. Fifteen minutes later the professional returns and calls “Alma Frankenberg.” Still no reply, so he leaves again. Another 15 minutes pass and the professional approaches Alma and shouts in her ear, “Are you Alma Frankenberg?” She replies, “No I am not, and I am not deaf either, and when you get my name correct I will answer you.” Using the topic 1 materials, develop a plan to help Alma be compliant with the procedure and post-treatment medication. Also, describe the approach you would take to patient education in this case.

Nursing Assignment Help 2025

2025 Clearly diagnosis is a critical aspect of healthcare However the ultimate purpose of a diagnosis

Assignment: Workplace Environment Assessment,NURS 6053/NURS 6053N/NRSE 6053C/NURS 6053C/NURS 6053A/NRSE 6053A: Interprofessional Organizational and Systems Leadership 2025

Clearly, diagnosis is a critical aspect of healthcare. However, the ultimate purpose of a diagnosis is the development and application of a series of treatments or protocols. Isolated recognition of a health issue does little to resolve it. In this module’s Discussion, you applied the Clark Healthy Workplace Inventory to diagnose potential problems with the civility of your organization. In this Portfolio Assignment, you will continue to analyze the results and apply published research to the development of a proposed treatment for any issues uncovered by the assessment. To Prepare: Review the Resources and examine the Clark Healthy Workplace Inventory, found on page 20 of Clark (2015). Review the Work Environment Assessment Template. Reflect on the output of your Discussion post regarding your evaluation of workplace civility and the feedback received from colleagues. Select and review one or more of the following articles found in the Resources: Clark, Olender, Cardoni, and Kenski (2011) Clark (2018) Clark (2015) Griffin and Clark (2014) The Assignment (3-6 pages total): Part 1: Work Environment Assessment (1-2 pages) Review the Work Environment Assessment Template you completed for this Module’s Discussion. Describe the results of the Work Environment Assessment you completed on your workplace. Identify two things that surprised you about the results and one idea you believed prior to conducting the Assessment that was confirmed. Explain what the results of the Assessment suggest about the health and civility of your workplace. Part 2: Reviewing the Literature (1-2 pages) Briefly describe the theory or concept presented in the article(s) you selected. Explain how the theory or concept presented in the article(s) relates to the results of your Work Environment Assessment. Explain how your organization could apply the theory highlighted in your selected article(s) to improve organizational health and/or create stronger work teams. Be specific and provide examples. Part 3: Evidence-Based Strategies to Create High-Performance Interprofessional Teams (1–2 pages) Recommend at least two strategies, supported in the literature, that can be implemented to address any shortcomings revealed in your Work Environment Assessment. Recommend at least two strategies that can be implemented to bolster successful practices revealed in your Work Environment Assessment. By Day 7 of Week 9 Submit your Workplace Environment Assessment Assignment.

Nursing Assignment Help 2025

2025 Measures of Effect One important application of epidemiology is to identify factors that

Measures of Effect 2025

Measures of Effect One important application of epidemiology is to identify factors that could increase the likelihood of a certain health problem occurring within a specific population. Epidemiologists use measures of effect to examine the association or linkage in the relationship between risk factors and emergence of disease or ill health. For instance, they may use measures of effect to better understand the relationships between poverty and lead poisoning in children, smoking and heart disease, or low birth weight and future motor skills. What is the significance of measures of effect for nursing practice? In this Discussion, you will consider this pivotal question. To prepare: With the Learning Resources in mind, consider how measures of effect strengthen and support nursing practice. What would be the risk of not using measures of effect in nursing practice? Conduct additional research in the Walden Library and other credible resources and locate two examples in the scholarly literature that support your insights. By tomorrow 04/11/2018 3pm, write a minimum of 550 words in APA format with at least 3 scholarly references from the list of required readings below. Include the level one headings as numbered below” Post a cohesive scholarly response that addresses the following: Analyze how measures of effect strengthen and support nursing practice. PROVIDE AT LEAST TWO SPECIFICS EXAMPLES from the literature to substantiate your insights. Assess dangers of not using measures of effect in nursing practice. Required Readings Friis, R. H., & Sellers, T. A. (2014). Epidemiology for public health practice (5th ed.). Sudbury, MA: Jones &smp; Bartlett. Review Chapter 3, “Measures of Morbidity and Mortality Used in Epidemiology” Chapter 9, “Measures of Effect” Chapter 9 extends the discussion that began with Chapter 6 (which looked at ecologic, cross-sectional, and case-control study designs) by introducing additional measures that are useful in evaluating the potential implications of an exposure-disease association. Tripepi, G. Jager, K. J., Dekker, F. W. & Zoccali, C. (2010). Measures of effect in epidemiological research. Nephron Clinical Practice, 115(2), c91–c93. As noted by the authors of this article (2010), “Measuring the strength of observed associations between a given risk factor (e.g., blood pressure) and a given outcome (e.g., stroke) is an important goal in epidemiological and clinical research” (p. c91). This article provides an accessible overview of the terminology and various methods used to measure associations in research. Optional Resources Krethong, P., Jirapaet, V., Jitpanya, C., & Sloan, R. (2008). A causal model of health-related quality of life in Thai patients with heart-failure. Journal of Nursing Scholarship, 40(3), 254–260. Ibrahim, M., Alexander, L., Shy, C., & Deming, S. (2001). Common measures and statistics in epidemiological literature. ERIC Notebook, 17, 1–6. Retrieved from http://cphp.sph.unc.edu/trainingpackages/ERIC/eric_notebook_17.pdf Schmidt, C. O., & Kohlmann, T. (2008). When to use the odd ratio or the relative risk? International Journal of Public Health, 53(3), 165–167. Vineis, P., & Kriebel, D. (2006). Causal models in epidemiology: Past inheritance and genetic future. Environmental Health: A Global Access Science Source, 5, p. 21.

Nursing Assignment Help 2025

2025 View Rubric Due Date Feb 22 Details Review the Topic Materials and the work completed in

Assignment PICOT Statement Paper 2025

View Rubric Due Date: Feb 22 Details: Review the Topic Materials and the work completed in NRS-433V to  formulate a PICOT statement for your capstone project. A PICOT starts with a designated patient population in a particular  clinical area and identifies clinical problems or issues that arise  from clinical care. The intervention should be an independent,  specified nursing change intervention. The intervention cannot require  a provider prescription. Include a comparison to a patient population  not currently receiving the intervention, and specify the timeframe  needed to implement the change process. Formulate a PICOT statement using the PICOT format provided in the  assigned readings. The PICOT statement will provide a framework for  your capstone project. In a paper of 500-750 words, clearly identify the clinical problem  and how it can result in a positive patient outcome. Make sure to address the following on the PICOT statement: Evidence-Based Solution Nursing Intervention Patient Care Health Care Agency Nursing  Practice Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA  Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to  beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for  successful completion. You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer  to the directions in the Student Success Center. Apply Rubrics PICOT Statement Paper 1 Unsatisfactory 0.00% 2 Less than Satisfactory 75.00% 3 Satisfactory 79.00% 4 Good 89.00% 5 Excellent 100.00% 80.0 %Content 30.0 % Identification of Clinical Problem/Issue Clinical problem/issue is not identified, and resolution is not addressed.  Clinical problem/issue is identified with little discussion of resolution or patient outcome.  Clinical problem/issue is identified but not supported with clinical observations or evidence. The identified problem/issue can be resolved, or a patient outcome shows minimal improvement.  Clinical problem/issue is identified based on clinical observation experience or evidence in literature. Articles are cited to support the need for change in nursing practice. The identified problem/issue can be resolved, or a patient outcome can be improved using nursing interventions.  Clinical problem/issue is identified based on key concepts that define evidence-based practice or clinical experience. Articles are cited to support the need for change in nursing practice. The identified problem/issue can be resolved, or a patient outcome can show a marked improvement through a nursing intervention. 30.0 % Clinical Problem/Issue, Including Description, Evidence-Based Solution, Nursing Intervention, Patient Care, Health Care Agency, and Nursing Practice Clinical problem/issue is not described with clarity and the corresponding elements are not included.  Clinical problem/issue description includes a basic understanding of the problem/issue and setting, with few of the following elements explained: evidence-based solution, nursing intervention, patient care, health care agency, and nursing practice.  Clinical problem/issue description includes a basic understanding of the problem/issue, the setting, and the patient population. The following elements are explained: evidence-based solution, nursing intervention, patient care, health care agency, and nursing practice. Minimal rationale is provided to support the resolution of the clinical problem/issue.  Clinical problem/issue description includes a thorough understanding of the problem/issue, the setting, the patient population, and why it is a problem/issue. The following elements are explained in detail: evidence-based solution, nursing intervention, and patient care consistent with specific health care agency and nursing practice. Sound rationale is provided supporting the clinical problem/issue resolution.  Clinical problem/issue description includes a developed and thorough explanation of the problem/issue, the setting, the patient population, and the rationale for why it is a problem/issue. The identified clinical problem/issue explains the following elements with detail and clarity: evidence-based solution, nursing intervention, and improved patient care consistent with specific health care agency resulting in nursing practice change. Sound rationale is provided in the discussion of the clinical problem/issue resolution. 10.0 % PICOT Statement Focused on Resolution, Improvement, Application, and Intervention PICOT statement does not focus on resolution of a problem/issue, improvement of patient care or application of a nursing intervention.  PICOT statement discusses a clinical problem/issue without a focus on improvement or intervention.  PICOT statement focuses on the resolution of a clinical problem/issue that improves patient care through the application of a nursing intervention.  PICOT statement focuses on the resolution of a clinical problem/issue, with discussion of improving patient care through the application of an evidenced-based nursing intervention.  PICOT statement clearly focuses on the resolution of a clinical problem/issue and aims at improving patient care through the application of an evidenced-based nursing intervention. 10.0 % PICOT Statement Including Population, Intervention, Comparison, Outcomes, and Time Population, Intervention, Comparison, Outcomes, and Time are not included.  Population, Intervention, Comparison, Outcomes, and Time are present, but lack detail or are incomplete.  Population, Intervention, Comparison, Outcomes, and Time are present.  Population, Intervention, Comparison, Outcomes, and Time are clearly provided and well developed.  Population, Intervention, Comparison, Outcomes, and Time are comprehensive and thoroughly developed with supporting details. 15.0 %Organization and Effectiveness 5.0 % Presentation Paper lacks any discernible overall purpose or organizing claim.  Thesis is insufficiently developed or vague. Purpose is not clear.  Thesis is apparent and appropriate to purpose.  Thesis is clear and forecasts the development of the paper. Thesis is descriptive and reflective of the arguments and appropriate to the purpose.  Thesis is comprehensive and contains the essence of the paper. Thesis statement makes the purpose of the paper clear. 5.0 % Argument Logic and Construction Statement of purpose is not justified by the conclusion. The conclusion does not support the claim made. Argument is incoherent and uses noncredible sources.  Sufficient justification of claims is lacking. Argument lacks consistent unity. There are obvious flaws in the logic. Some sources have questionable credibility.  Argument is orderly, but may have a few inconsistencies. The argument presents minimal justification of claims. Argument logically, but not thoroughly, supports the purpose. Sources used are credible. Introduction and conclusion bracket the thesis. Argument shows logical progressions. Techniques of argumentation are evident. There is a smooth progression of claims from introduction to conclusion. Most sources are authoritative.  Clear and convincing argument that presents a persuasive claim in a distinctive and compelling manner. All sources are authoritative. 5.0 % Mechanics of Writing (includes spelling, punctuation, grammar, language use) Surface errors are pervasive enough that they impede communication of meaning. Inappropriate word choice or sentence construction is used.  Frequent and repetitive mechanical errors distract the reader. Inconsistencies in language choice (register), sentence structure, or word choice are present.  Some mechanical errors or typos are present, but they are not overly distracting to the reader. Correct sentence structure and audience-appropriate language are used. Prose is largely free of mechanical errors, although a few may be present. A variety of sentence structures and effective figures of speech are used. Writer is clearly in command of standard, written, academic English. 5.0 %Format 2.0 % Paper Format (use of appropriate style for the major and assignment) Template is not used appropriately or documentation format is rarely followed correctly.  Template is used, but some elements are missing or mistaken; lack of control with formatting is apparent.  Template is used, and formatting is correct, although some minor errors may be present. Template is fully used; There are virtually no errors in formatting style.  All format elements are correct. 5.0 %Format 3.0 % Documentation of Sources (citations, footnotes, references, bibliography, etc., as appropriate to assignment and style) Sources are not documented.  Documentation of sources is inconsistent or incorrect, as appropriate to assignment and style, with numerous formatting errors.  Sources are documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, although some formatting errors may be present.  Sources are documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is mostly correct. Sources are completely and correctly documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is free of error. 100 % Total Weightage

Nursing Assignment Help 2025

2025 Question 1 Question The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy

NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam latest 2017 2025

Question 1 . Question : The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is: Alendronate (Fosamax) Ibandronate (Boniva) Calcium carbonate Raloxifene (Evista) Question 2 . Question : Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to: Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses Question 3 . Question : Some research supports that testosterone replacement therapy may be indicated in which of the following diagnoses in men? Age-related decrease in cognitive functioning Metabolic syndrome Decreased muscle mass in aging men All of the above Question 4 . Question : The chemicals that promote the spread of pain locally include _________ . serotonin norepinephrine enkephalin neurokinin A Question 5 . Question : The DEA: Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances Regulates NP prescribing at the state level Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing Question 6 . Question : The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for RA is _____ . forty-eight hours four to six days four weeks two months Question 7 . Question : The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be: The kidneys The lungs The bile and feces The skin Question 8 . Question : Compelling indications for an ACE inhibitor as treatment for hypertension based on clinical trials include: Pregnancy Renal parenchymal disease Stable angina Dyslipidemia Question 9 . Question : The American Diabetic Association has recommended which of the following tests for ongoing management of diabetes? Fasting blood glucose Hemoglobin A1c Thyroid function tests Electrocardiograms Question 10 . Question : The angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor lisinopril is a known teratogen . Teratogens cause Type ____ ADR . A B C D Question 11 . Question : The goals of therapy when prescribing HRT include reducing: Cardiovascular risk Risk of stroke or other thromboembolic event Breast cancer risk Vasomotor symptoms Question 12 . Question : Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on: Nitrates Beta blockers ACE inhibitors Calcium channel blockers Question 13 . Question : The New York Heart Association and the Canadian Cardiovascular Society have described grading criteria for levels of angina . Angina that occurs with unusually strenuous activity or on walking or climbing stair after meals is: Class I Class II Class III Class IV Question 14 . Question : Patients with allergic rhinitis may benefit from a prescription of: Fluticasone (Flonase) Cetirizine (Zyrtec) OTC cromolyn nasal spray (Nasalcrom) Any of the above Question 15 . Question : Kyle has Crohn’s disease and has a documented folate deficiency . Drug therapy for folate deficiency anemia is: Oral folic acid 1 to 2 mg/day Oral folic acid 1 gm/day IM folate weekly for at least six months Oral folic acid 400 mcg daily Question 16 . Question : The treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency is: 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin 2 gm/day of oral cobalamin 100 mcg/day vitamin B12 IM 500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week Question 17 . Question : Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension . One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that: Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness Must be taken no more than twice a day Question 18 . Question : Type II diabetes is a complex disorder involving: Absence of insulin production by the beta cells A suboptimal response of insulin-sensitive tissues in the liver Increased levels of GLP in the postprandial period Too much fat uptake in the intestine Question 19 . Question : Metformin is a primary choice of drug to treat hyperglycemia in type II diabetes because it: Substitutes for insulin usually secreted by the pancreas Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver Increases the release of insulin from beta cells Decreases peripheral glucose utilization Question 20 . Question : Gender differences between men and women in pharmacokinetics include: More rapid gastric emptying so that drugs absorbed in the stomach have less exposure to absorption sites Higher proportion of body fat so that lipophilic drugs have relatively greater volumes of distribution Increased levels of bile acids so that drugs metabolized in the intestine have higher concentrations Slower organ blood flow rates so that drugs tend to take longer to be excreted Question 21 . Question : If not chosen as the first drug in hypertension treatment, which drug class should be added as the second step because it will enhance the effects of most other agents? ACE inhibitors Beta blockers Calcium channel blockers Diuretics Question 22 . Question : A nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone . Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including: Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation Excessive weight gain Hypertension Potentially fatal agranulocytosis Question 23 . Question : Levetiracetam has known drug interactions with: Oral contraceptives Carbamazepine Warfarin Few, if any, drugs Question 24 . Question : When the total daily insulin dose is split and given twice daily, which of the following rules may be followed? Give two-thirds of the total dose in the morning and one-third in the evening . Give 0 . 3 units/kg of premixed 70/30 insulin, with one-third in the morning and two-thirds in the evening . Give 50% of an insulin glargine dose in the morning and 50% in the evening . Give long-acting insulin in the morning and short-acting insulin at bedtime . Question 25 . Question : Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen? Complexity of the drug regimen Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs Both A and B Neither A nor B Question 26 . Question : The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called: Steady state Half-life Phase II metabolism Reduced bioavailability time Question 27 . Question : Drugs that are absolutely contraindicated in lactating women include: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors Antiepileptic drugs such as carbamazepine Antineoplastic drugs such as methotrexate All of the above Question 28 . Question : Tobie presents to clinic with moderate acne . He has been using OTC benzoyl peroxide at home with minimal improvement . A topical antibiotic (clindamycin) and a topical retinoid adapalene (Differin) are prescribed . Education of Tobie would include which one of the following instructions? He should see an improvement in his acne within the first two weeks of treatment . If there is no response in a week, he should double the daily application of adapalene (Differin) . He may see an initial worsening of his acne that will improve in six to eight weeks . Adapalene may cause bleaching of clothing . Question 29 . Question : Martin is a sixty-year-old with hypertension . The first-line decongestant to be prescribed would be: Oral pseudoephedrine Oral phenylephrine Nasal oxymetazoline Nasal azelastine Question 30 . Question : A woman who is pregnant and has hyperthyroidism is best managed by a specialty team that will most likely treat her with: Methimazole . Propylthiouracil . Radioactive iodine . Nothing; treatment is best delayed until after her pregnancy ends . Question 31 . Question : A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain . He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids . A C E G Question 32 . Question : Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they: Are more effective than first-generation antihistamines Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines Are prescription products and, therefore, are covered by insurance Can be taken with CNS sedatives, such as alcohol Question 33 . Question : Steady state is: The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion When the amount of drug in the body remains constant When the amount of drug in the body stays below the minimum toxic concentration (MTC) All of the above Question 34 . Question : Jayla is a nine-year-old who has been diagnosed with migraines for almost two years . She is missing up to a week of school each month . Her headache diary confirms she averages four or five migraines per month . Which of the following would be appropriate? Prescribe amitriptyline (Elavil) daily, start at a low dose and increase the dose slowly every two weeks until effective in eliminating migraines . Encourage her mother to give her Excedrin Migraine (aspirin, acetaminophen, and caffeine) at the first sign of a headache to abort the headache . Prescribe propranolol (Inderal) to be taken daily for at least three months . Explain that it is rare for a nine-year-old to get migraines and that she needs an MRI to rule out a brain tumor . Question 35 . Question : Josie is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea . She is unable to keep fluids down, and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight . Besides intravenous (IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication . Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie? Prochlorperazine (Compazine) Meclizine (Antivert) Promethazine (Phenergan) Ondansetron (Zofran) Question 36 . Question : Long-term use of PPIs may lead to: Hip fractures in at-risk persons Vitamin B6 deficiency Liver cancer All of the above Question 37 . Question : Many patients self-medicate with antacids . Which patients should be counseled to not take calcium carbonate antacids without discussing with their providers or a pharmacist first? Patients with kidney stones Pregnant patients Patients with heartburn IN Postmenopausal women 0 of 2 . 5 Question 38 . Question : Beta blockers treat hypertension because they: Reduce peripheral resistance . Vasoconstrict coronary arteries . Reduce norepinephrine . Reduce angiotensin II production . Question 39 . Question : Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include: Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug directly to the pharmacy Using tamper-proof papers for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs Keeping any presigned prescription pads in a locked drawer in the clinic Using only numbers to indicate the amount of drug to be prescribed Question 40 . Question : The tricyclic antidepressants should be prescribed cautiously in patients with: Eczema Asthma Diabetes Heart disease Question 41 . Question : An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone? Beta blockers Diuretics Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers Angiotensin II receptor blockers Question 42 . Question : Metoclopramide improves GERD symptoms by: Reducing acid secretion Increasing gastric pH Increasing lower esophageal tone Decreasing lower esophageal tone Question 43 . Question : Patient education regarding prescribed medication includes: Instructions written at the high school reading level Discussion of expected ADRs How to store leftover medication such as antibiotics Verbal instructions always in English Question 44 . Question : If a patient with H . pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is: A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days Testing H . pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days Question 45 . Question : A patient with a COPD exacerbation may require: Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose Systemic corticosteroid burst Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists Leukotriene therapy Question 46 . Question : Angela is a black woman who has heard that women of African descent do not need to worry about osteoporosis . What education would you provide Angela about her risk? She is ; black women do not have much risk of developing osteoporosis due to their dark skin . Black women are at risk of developing osteoporosis due to their lower calcium intake as a group . If she doesn’t drink alcohol, her risk of developing osteoporosis is low . If she has not lost more than 10% of her weight lately, her risk is low . Question 47 . Question : The role of the nurse practitioner in the use of herbal medication is to: Maintain competence in the prescribing of common herbal remedies . Recommend common OTC herbs to patients . Educate patients and guide them to appropriate sources of care . Encourage patients to not use herbal therapy due to the documented dangers . Question 48 . Question : Ray has been diagnosed with hypertension, and an ACE inhibitor is determined to be needed . Prior to prescribing this drug, the nurse practitioner should assess for: Hypokalemia Impotence Decreased renal function Inability to concentrate Question 49 . Question : Long-acting beta-agonists received a black box warning from the US Food and Drug Administration due to the: Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions Increased incidence of cardiac events when long-acting beta-agonists are used Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes Question 50 . Question : Off-Label prescribing is: Regulated by the FDA Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces) Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use Regulated by the DEA Question 51 . Question : Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university . He exhibits knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis . He should be taught that: He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise . Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive . Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts . If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes . Question 52 . Question : Prior to starting antidepressants, patients should have laboratory testing to rule out: IN Hypothyroidism Anemia Diabetes mellitus Low estrogen levels 0 of 2 . 5 Question 53 . Question : What impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for infants and children? Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not Question 54 . Question : All diabetic patients with hyperlipidemia should be treated with: 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase inhibitors Fibric acid derivatives Nicotinic acid Colestipol Question 55 . Question : Treatment failure in patients with PUD associated with H . pylori may be due to: Antimicrobial resistance Ineffective antacid Overuse of PPIs All of the above Question 56 . Question : To improve positive outcomes when prescribing for the elderly, the NP should: Assess cognitive functioning in the elder Encourage the patient to take a weekly “drug holiday” to keep drug costs down Encourage the patient to cut drugs in half with a knife to lower costs All of the above options are Question 57 . Question : Erik presents with a golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo . His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive treatment . Which medication would be the best choice for treatment? Mupirocin (Bactroban) Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment) Retapamulin (Altabax) Oral cephalexin (Keflex) Question 58 . Question : Nonselective beta blockers and alcohol create serious drug interactions with insulin because they: Increase blood glucose levels . Produce unexplained diaphoresis . Interfere with the ability of the body to metabolize glucose . Mask the signs and symptoms of altered glucose levels . Question 59 . Question : Infants and young children are at higher risk of ADRs due to: Immature renal function in school-age children Lack of safety and efficacy studies in the pediatric population Children’s skin being thicker than adults, requiring higher dosages of topical medication Infant boys having a higher proportion of muscle mass, leading to a higher volume of distribution Question 60 . Question : Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to: Toxic levels of warfarin building up Decreased response to warfarin Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin Question 61 . Question : Jose is a twelve-year-old overweight child with a total cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL and LDL of 125 mg/dL . Along with diet education and recommending increased physical activity, a treatment plan for Jose would include ____ with a reevaluation in six months . statins niacin sterols bile acid-binding resins Question 62 . Question : A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema . Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response? Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms . It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production . The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response . Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week . Question 63 . Question : Amber is a twenty-four-year-old who has had migraines for ten years . She reports a migraine on average of once a month . The migraines are effectively aborted with naratriptan (Amerge) . When refilling Amber’s naratriptan education would include which of the following? Naratriptan will interact with antidepressants, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and St John’s Wort, and she should inform any providers she sees that she has migraines . Continue to monitor her headaches; if the migraine is consistently happening around her menses, then there is preventive therapy available . Pregnancy is contraindicated when taking a triptan . All the given options are correct . Question 64 . Question : One of the main drug classes used to treat acute pain is NSAIDs . They are used due to which of the following reasons? They have less risk for liver damage than acetaminophen . Inflammation is a common cause of acute pain . They have minimal GI irritation . Regulation of blood flow to the kidney is not affected by these drugs . Question 65 . Question : A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream to treat burns on his or her leg . Normal adverse effects of silver sulfadiazine cream include: Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve Worsening of burn symptoms briefly before resolution A red, scaly rash that will resolve with continued use Hypercalcemia Question 66 . Question : Sulfonylureas may be added to a treatment regimen for type II diabetics when lifestyle modifications and metformin are insufficient to achieve target glucose levels . Sulfonylureas have been moved to Step 2 therapy because they: Increase endogenous insulin secretion . Have a significant risk for hypoglycemia . Address the insulin resistance found in type II diabetics . Improve insulin binding to receptors . Question 67 . Question : Narcotics are exogenous opiates . They act by ______ . inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary Question 68 . Question : Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________ . serum glucose stool culture folate levels vitamin B12 Question 69 . Question : Henry presents to clinic with a significantly swollen, painful great toe and is diagnosed with gout . Of the following, which would be the best treatment for Henry? High-dose colchicines Low-dose colchicines High-dose aspirin Acetaminophen with codeine Question 70 . Question : Jaycee has been on escitalopram (Lexapro) for a year and is willing to try tapering off of the selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors . What is the initial dosage adjustment when starting a taper off antidepressants? Change the dose to every other day dosing for a week . Reduce the dose by 50% for three to four days . Reduce the dose by 50% every other day . Escitalopram (Lexapro) can be stopped abruptly due to its long half-life . Question 71 . Question : Christy has exercise and mild persistent asthma and is prescribed two puffs of albuterol fifteen minutes before exercise and as needed for wheezing . One puff per day of beclomethasone (Qvar) is also prescribed . Teaching regarding her inhalers includes which one of the following? She should use one to two puffs of albuterol per day to prevent an attack, with no more than eight puffs per day . Beclomethasone needs to be used every day to treat her asthma . She should report any systemic side effects she is experiencing, such as weight gain . She should use the albuterol MDI immediately after her corticosteroid MDI to facilitate bronchodilation . Question 72 . Question : Asthma exacerbations at home are managed by the patient by: Increasing the frequency of beta 2 agonists and contacting his or her provider Doubling inhaled corticosteroid dose Increasing the frequency of beta 2 agonists Starting montelukast (Singulair) Question 73 . Question : A woman with an intact uterus should not be prescribed: Estrogen/progesterone combination Intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) Estrogen alone Androgens Question 74 . Question : The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy years old is: Alendronate (Fosamax) Ibandronate (Boniva) Calcium carbonate Raloxifene (Evista) Question 75 . Question : Patient education when prescribing the vitamin D3 derivative calcipotriene for psoriasis includes: Applying calcipotriene thickly to affected psoriatic areas two to three times a day Applying a maximum of 100 grams of calcipotriene per week Not using calcipotriene in combination with its topical corticosteroids Augmenting calcipotriene with the use of coal-tar products Question 76 . Question : Both ACE inhibitors and some angiotensin-II receptor blockers have been approved in treating: Hypertension in diabetic patients Diabetic nephropathy Both A and B Neither A nor B Question 77 . Question : Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel . He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL . He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity . He has mildly elevated liver studies . An appropriate next step for therapy would be: Atorvastatin (Lipitor) Niacin (Niaspan) Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin) Gemfibrozil (Lopid) Question 78 . Question : Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic . Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma Question 79 . Question : Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact . During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by: Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient Both A and B Neither A nor B Question 80 . Question : Which one of the below-given instructions can be followed for applying a topical antibiotic or antiviral ointment? Apply thickly to the infected area, spreading the medication well past the borders of the infection If the rash worsens, apply a thicker layer of medication to settle down the infection Wash hands before and after application of topical antimicrobials None of the above Question 81 . Question : Sadie is a ninety-year-old patient who requires a new prescription . What changes in drug distribution with aging would influence prescribing for Sadie? Increased volume of distribution Decreased lipid solubility Decreased plasma proteins Increased muscle-to-fat ratio Question 82 . Question : First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be: OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole) Oral terbinafine Oral griseofulvin microsize Nystatin cream or ointment Question 83 . Question : Which of the following is true about procainamide and its dosing schedule? It produces bradycardia and should be used cautiously in patients with cardiac conditions that a slower heart rate might worsen . GI adverse effects are common, so the drug should be taken with food . Adherence can be improved by using a sustained-release formulation that can be given once daily . Doses of this drug should be taken evenly spaced around the clock to keep an even blood level . Question 84 . Question : A nurse practitioner would prescribe the liquid form of ibuprofen for a six-year-old because: Drugs given in liquid form are less irritating to the stomach . A six-year-old may have problems swallowing a pill . Liquid forms of medication eliminate the concern for first-pass effect . Liquid ibuprofen does not have to be dosed as often as tablet form . Question 85 . Question : Kristine would like to start HRT to treat the significant vasomotor symptoms she is experiencing during menopause . Education for a woman considering hormone replacement would include: Explaining that HRT is totally safe if used for a short term Telling her to ignore media hype regarding HRT Discussing the advantages and risks of HRT Encouraging the patient to use phytoestrogens with the HRT Question 86 . Question : Xi, a fifty-four-year-old female, has a history of migraine that does not respond well to OTC migraine medication . She is asking to try Maxalt (rizatriptan) because it works well for her friend . Which of the following actions would you take for appropriate decision making? Prescribe Maxalt, but to monitor the use, only give her four tablets with no refills . Prescribe Maxalt and arrange to have her observed in the clinic or urgent care with the first dose . Explain that rizatriptan is not used for postmenopausal migraines and recommend Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital) . Prescribe sumatriptan (Imitrex) with the explanation that it is the most effective triptan . Question 87 . Question : The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to: Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect Age-related decrease in renal function Question 88 . Question : Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis) . Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes: Miconazole cream Ketoconazole cream Oral griseofulvin Mupirocin cream Question 89 . Question : GLP-1 agonists: Directly bind to a receptor in the pancreatic beta cell . Have been approved for monotherapy . Speed gastric emptying to decrease appetite . Can be given orally once daily . Question 90 . Question : Prophylactic use of bisphosphonates is recommended for patients with early osteopenia related to long-term use of which of the following drugs? Selective estrogen-receptor modulators Aspirin Glucocorticoids Calcium supplements Question 91 . Question : Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by: Increasing calcitonin production Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine Altering calcium metabolism Stimulating bone formation Question 92 . Question : Which of the following statements is true about age and pain? Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children . Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs . Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain . Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs . Question 93 . Question : Selective estrogen receptor modifiers (SERMs) treat osteoporosis by selectively: Inhibiting magnesium resorption in the kidneys Increasing calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract Acting on the bone to inhibit osteoblast activity Selectively acting on the estrogen receptors in the bone Question 94 . Question : When a patient is on selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors: The complete blood count must be monitored every three to four months Therapeutic blood levels must be monitored every six months after a steady state is achieved . Blood glucose must be monitored every three to four months . There is no laboratory monitoring required . Question 95 . Question : Patients whose total dose of prednisone exceed 1 gram will most likely need a second prescription for _________ . metformin, a biguanide to prevent diabetes omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor to prevent peptic ulcer disease naproxen, an NSAID to treat joint pain furosemide, a diuretic to treat fluid retention Question 96 . Question : The ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is: Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans Annual vitamin D level Annual renal function evaluation Electrolytes every three months Question 97 . Question : Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to: Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia . Potentiate the effects of the drug . Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur . Increase CNS depression . Question 98 . Question : Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include: Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl Question 99 . Question : Insulin preparations are divided into categories based on onset, duration, and intensity of action following subcutaneous inject . Which of the following insulin preparations has the shortest onset and duration of action? Insulin lispro Insulin glulisine Insulin glargine Insulin detemir Question 100 . Cynthia is taking valproate (Depakote) for seizures and would like to get pregnant . What advice would you give her? Valproate is safe during all trimesters of pregnancy . She can get pregnant while taking valproate, but she should take adequate folic acid . Valproate is not safe at any time during pregnancy . Valproate is a known teratogen but may be taken after the first trimester if necessary .

Nursing Assignment Help 2025