2025 Assignment Global Healthcare Comparison Matrix and Narrative Statement If you talk about a

Global Healthcare Comparison Matrix and Narrative Statement 2025

Assignment: Global Healthcare Comparison Matrix and Narrative Statement If you talk about a possible poor health outcome, do you believe that outcome will occur? Do you believe eye contact and personal contact should be avoided? You would have a difficult time practicing as a nurse if you believed these to be true. But they are very real beliefs in some cultures. Differences in cultural beliefs, subcultures, religion, ethnic customs, dietary customs, language, and a host of other factors contribute to the complex environment that surrounds global healthcare issues. Failure to understand and account for these differences can create a gulf between practitioners and the public they serve. In this Assignment, you will examine a global health issue and consider the approach to this issue by the United States and by one other country. To Prepare: Review the World Health Organization’s (WHO) global health agenda and select one global health issue to focus on for this Assignment. Select at least one additional country to compare to the U.S. for this Assignment. Reflect on how the global health issue you selected is approached in the U.S. and in the additional country you selected. Review and download the Global Health Comparison Matrix provided in the Resources. The Assignment: (1- to 2-page Global Health Comparison Matrix; 1-page Plan for Social Change) Part 1: Global Health Comparison Matrix Focusing on the country you selected and the U.S., complete the Global Health Comparison Matrix. Be sure to address the following: Consider the U.S. national/federal health policies that have been adapted for the global health issue you selected from the WHO global health agenda. Compare these policies to the additional country you selected for study. Explain the strengths and weaknesses of each policy. Explain how the social determinants of health may impact the global health issue you selected. Be specific and provide examples. Using the WHO’s Organization’s global health agenda as well as the results of your own research, analyze how each country’s government addresses cost, quality, and access to the global health issue selected. Explain how the health policy you selected might impact the health of the global population. Be specific and provide examples. Explain how the health policy you selected might impact the role of the nurse in each country. Explain how global health issues impact local healthcare organizations and policies in both countries. Be specific and provide examples. Part 2: A Plan for Social Change Reflect on the global health policy comparison and analysis you conducted in Part 1 of the Assignment and the impact that global health issues may have on the world, the U.S., your community, as well as your practice as a nurse leader. In a 1-page response, create a plan for social change that incorporates a global perspective or lens into your local practice and role as a nurse leader. Explain how you would advocate for the incorporation of a global perspective or lens into your local practice and role as a nurse leader. Explain how the incorporation of a global perspective or lens might impact your local practice and role as a nurse leader. Explain how the incorporation of a global perspective or lens into your local practice as a nurse leader represents and contributes to social change. Be specific and provide examples.

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2025 Note This is an individual assignment In 1 500 2 000 words describe the teaching experience and discuss your observations The written portion

Community Teaching Plan: Teaching Experience Paper 2025

Note: This is an individual assignment. In 1,500-2,000 words, describe the teaching experience and discuss your observations. The written portion of this assignment should include: Summary of teaching plan Epidemiological rationale for topic Evaluation of teaching experience Community response to teaching Areas of strengths and areas of improvement Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

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2025 To prepare Review your state s process for obtaining prescriptive authority and associated fees Georgia Review the DEA

6565 7 DISCU 2025

To prepare: Review your state’s process for obtaining prescriptive authority and associated fees (Georgia) Review the DEA website and review the process for obtaining a DEA number and associated fees. Review and select one of the following case studies and analyze the provider information: Case Study One : Lori, FNP-BC, is a new graduate and has recently passed her certification exam. She has just been hired to work for a Primary Care Clinic as a nurse practitioner in a small town. She will be working with one physician at one site. Case study Two : James, FNP-BC, works with a physician who specializes in pain control. He works in several clinics in the large urban city where he practices as nurse practitioner. Write 1 to 2 pages Post a brief summary of the case study you selected and an explanation of the appropriate prescriptive authority and DEA registration process needed for the case study you selected. Then, explain the safe prescribing practices that these providers should use for these settings . Reference Buppert, C. (2015). Prescribing. In Nurse Practitioner’s Business Practice and Legal Guide (5th ed.). (199-204). Burlington, MA: Jones & Bartlett. U.S. Department of Justice (n.d.). Drug Enforcement Administration: Office of Diversion Control. Retrieved from http://https://www.dea.gov/ops/diversion.shtml Required Media Fisher, A. S. (2015, June 5). Medical Records: What Must Be Included from a Legal Standpoint? [Video file]. Retrieved from https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=euhoL62YsSk

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2025 In collaboration with the approved course preceptor students will identify a specific evidence based topic for the

Capstone Project Topic Selection and Approval 2025

In collaboration with the approved course preceptor, students will identify a specific evidence-based topic for the capstone project change proposal. Students should consider the clinical environment in which they are currently employed or have recently worked. The capstone project topic can be a clinical practice problem, an organizational issue, a leadership or quality improvement initiative, or an unmet educational need specific to a patient population or community. The student may also choose to work with an interprofessional collaborative team. Students should select a topic that aligns to their area of interest as well as the clinical practice setting in which practice hours are completed. Write a 500-750 word description of your proposed capstone project topic. Include the following: The problem or issue, intervention, quality initiative, educational need, or collaborative interprofessional team project that will be the focus of the change proposal. The setting or context in which the problem or issue, intervention, quality initiative, educational need, or collaborative interprofessional team project can be observed. A description (providing a high level of detail) regarding the problem or issue, intervention, quality initiative, educational need, or collaborative interprofessional team project. Effect of the problem or issue, intervention, quality initiative, educational need, or collaborative interprofessional team project. Significance of the topic and its implications for nursing practice. A proposed solution to the identified project topic with an explanation of how it will affect nursing practice. You are required to cite to a minimum of eight peer-reviewed sources to complete this assignment. Sources must be published within the last 5 years, appropriate for the assignment criteria, and relevant to nursing practice. Plan your time accordingly to complete this assignment. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide. An abstract is not required.

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2025 Stephanie is a 36 year old female who presents to the clinic with a history of anxiety Social history

psychopharma 2025

Stephanie is a 36-year-old female who presents to the clinic with a history of anxiety. Social history is unremarkable. For the last 4 years, she has been well controlled on paroxetine, however she feels “it just doesn’t work anymore.” You have decided to change her medication regimen to vortioxetine 5mg, titrating up to a max dose of 20mg per day based on tolerability. The patient asks, “When can I expect this to start kicking in?” The best response is: a.  3 or 4 days  b.  1 or 2 weeks  c.  3 or 4 weeks  d.  10 weeks 3.75 points Question 2 Which of the following medications, when given intramuscularly, is most likely to cause severe postural hypotension? a.  haloperidol  b.  lorazepam  c.  benztropine  d.  chlorpromazine 3.75 points Question 3 Sam is a 48-year-old male who presents to the clinic with signs and symptoms consistent with GAD & MDD. Which of the following medications would be the LEAST appropriate choice when initiating pharmacotherapy? a.  duloxetine  b.  sertraline  c.  mirtazapine  d.  buproprion 3.75 points Question 4 Jason is a 6-year-old child whose mother presents to the clinic with him. The mother says that “he’s not himself lately.” After a thorough workup, you diagnose the patient as having GAD. Which of the following medications would be the LEAST appropriate to prescribe to this child? a.  Sertraline  b.  Paroxetine  c.  Venlafaxine  d.  Buspirone 3.75 points Question 5 Mirza is a 75-year-old patient with a long history of schizophrenia. During the past 5 years, she has shown significant cognitive decline consistent with dementia. The patient has been well controlled on a regimen of risperidone 1mg BID. As the PMHNP, the most appropriate course of action for this patient is: a.  Increase the risperidone to 1mg QAM, 2mg QPM  b.  Discontinue risperidone and prescribe a long-acting injectable such as Invega Sustenna.  c.  Discontinue risperidone and initiate therapy with clozapine.  d.  Augment the patient’s risperidone with brexpiprazole. 3.75 points Question 6 Amber is a 26-year-old female who presents to the clinic 6 weeks postpartum. The patient states that she has been “feeling down” since the birth of her son. She is currently breastfeeding her infant. You diagnose the patient with Postpartum depression. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate option in treating her PPD? a.  paroxetine  b.  escitalopram  c.  citalopram  d.  sertraline 3.75 points Question 7 Jordyn is a 27-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with GAD. She is 30 weeks pregnant and has been well controlled on a regimen of sertraline 50mg daily. Jordyn says that “about once or twice a week my husband really gets on my nerves and I can’t take it.” She is opposed to having the sertraline dose increased due to the risk of further weight gain. You have decided to prescribe the patient a short-term course of benzodiazepines for breakthrough anxiety. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate benzodiazepines to prescribe to this patient? a.  diazepam  b.  alprazolam  c.  clonazepam  d.  lorazepam 3.75 points Question 8 Steve is a 35-year-old male who presents to the primary care office complaining of anxiety secondary to quitting smoking cold turkey 2 weeks ago. The patient has a 14-year history of smoking two packs per day. The patient has an unremarkable social history other than a recent divorce from his wife, Brittany. Which of the following would be the LEAST effective medication to treat Steve’s anxiety? a.  Buproprion  b.  Sertraline  c.  Varenicline  d.  Alprazolam 3.75 points Question 9 Rebecca is a 32-year-old female who was recently prescribed escitalopram for MDD. She presents to the clinic today complaining of diaphoresis, tachycardia, and confusion. The differential diagnosis for this patient, based on the symptoms presenting, is: a.  Panic disorder  b.  Gastroenteritis  c.  Abnormal gait  d.  Serotonin syndrome 3.75 points Question 10 The patient in the previous question states, “I can’t even last 1 more day without feeling like my insides are going to explode with anxiety.” The most appropriate course of action would be: a.  Inform the patient to try yoga or other natural remedies until the vortioxetine takes effect.  b.  Prescribe a short-term course of low dose benzodiazepine, such as alprazolam.  c.  Prescribe an SNRI, such as venlafaxine, in addition to the vortioxetine.  d.  Recommend in-patient mental health for the foreseeable future. 3.75 points Question 11 John is a 41-year old-patient who presents to the clinic with diarrhea, fatigue, and recently has been having tremors. He was diagnosed 19 years ago with bipolar disorder and is currently managed on Lithium 300mg BID. As the PMHNP, you decide to order a lithium level that comes back at 2.3mmol/l. What is the most appropriate course of action? a.  Investigate other differential diagnoses for his symptoms.  b.  Tell John to skip his next four Lithium doses and resume therapy.  c.  Tell John he needs to go to the hospital and call an ambulance to bring him.  d.  Prescribe loperamide to treat the diarrhea and ropinirole to treat the tremors 3.75 points Question 12 Mark is a 46-year-old male with treatment-resistant depression. He has tried various medications, including SSRIs, SNRI, and TCAs. You have decided to initiate therapy with phenelzine. Which of the following must the PMHNP take into consideration when initiating therapy with phenelzine? a.  There is a minimum 7-day washout period when switching from another antidepressant to phenelzine.  b.  Patient must be counseled on dietary restrictions.  c.  MAOIs may be given as an adjunctive therapy with SSRIs.  d.  A & B  e.  All of the above 3.75 points Question 13 Thomas is a 28-year-old male who presents to the clinic with signs and symptoms consistent with MDD. He is concerned about starting antidepressant therapy, however, because one of his friends recently experienced erectile dysfunction when he was put on an antidepressant. Which of the following would be the most appropriate antidepressant to start Thomas on? a.  Vilazodone  b.  Sertraline  c.  Paroxetine  d.  Citalopram 3.75 points Question 14 Melvin is an 89-year-old male who presents to the clinic with signs/symptoms consistent with MDD. Which of the following would be the LEAST appropriate medication to prescribe to this elderly patient? a.  nortriptyline  b.  amitriptyline  c.  desipramine  d.  trazodone 3.75 points Question 15 Jane is a 17-year-old patient who presents to the office with signs consistent with schizophrenia. She states multiple times that she is concerned about gaining weight, as she has the perfect prom dress picked out and she finally got a date. Which of the following is the least appropriate choice to prescribe Jane? a.  Aripiprazole  b.  Olanzapine  c.  Haloperidol  d.  Brexpiprazole 3.75 points Question 16 Richard is a 54-year-old male who suffers from schizophrenia. After exhausting various medication options, you have decided to start him on Clozapine. Which of the statements below is true regarding Clozapine? a.  Regular blood monitoring must be performed to monitor for neutropenia.  b.  Clozapine can only be filled by a pharmacy that participates in the REMS program.  c.  Bradycardia is a common side effect of Clozapine.  d.  A & B  e.  All of the above 3.75 points Question 17 Cindy is a 55-year-old patient who presents with symptoms consistent with Generalized anxiety disorder. The patient has an unremarkable social history other than she consumes two or three glasses of wine per night. Which of the following would be an appropriate therapy to start this patient on? a.  Xanax 0.25mg BID PRN Anxiety  b.  Escitalopram 10mg daily  c.  Buspirone 10mg BID  d.  Aripiprazole 10mg daily 3.75 points Question 18 Martin is a 92-year-old male who presents to the clinic with signs/symptoms consistent with MDD. The patient suffers from glaucoma and just recently underwent surgery for a cataract. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate course of therapy when treating the MDD? a.  sertraline  b.  amitriptyline  c.  duloxetine  d.  vilazodone 3.75 points Question 19 Which of the following statements are true? a.  First-generation (typical) antipsychotics are associated with a higher incidence of EPS.  b.  Second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics are associated with a higher risk of metabolic side effects.  c.  There is evidence that atypical antipsychotics are significantly more effective than typical antipsychotics in the treatment of cognitive symptoms associated with schizophrenia.  d.  A & B  e.  A, B, and C 3.75 points Question 20 Earle is an 86-year-old patient who presents to the hospital with a Community Acquired Pneumonia. During stay, you notice that the patient often seems agitated. He suffers from cognitive decline and currently takes no mental health medications. Treatment for the CAP include ceftriaxone and azithromycin. The LEAST appropriate medication to treat Earle’s anxiety is: a.  sertraline  b.  duloxetine  c.  citalopram  d.  venlafaxine

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2025 Details Explore the technology systems offered by Nanthealth Explore the technology systems offered

Details: Explore the technology systems offered by Nanthealth, 2025

Details: Explore the technology systems offered by Nanthealth, Explore the technology systems offered by Nanthealth, a provider of “telehealth” and health management services via the following link: http://nanthealth.com/ Prepare a brief (8-10 slides) PowerPoint presentation in which you do the following: 1. Identify at least two technology innovations to connect patients, providers, and insurers across the care continuum. 2. Describe how the technologies work to provide patients and providers with data necessary for health care decision making. 3. Discuss how the real-time data encourages outcome-focused planning. 4. Predict what impact the technology will have on future health care delivery. Provide rationale and examples. Presentations must include speakers’ notes on each slide, as well as references for the presentation. The slide count (10-12 slides) does not include the introduction and References slide(s). In addition to your textbook, “ The Interprofessional Health Care Team: Leadership and Development”. A minimum of FOUR academic references from credible sources are required for this assignment.

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2025 NURS 6540 FINAL EXAM NURS6540 FINAL EXAM 50 CORRECT Q A NURS 6540 Final Exam NURS6540 Final

NURS 6540 FINAL EXAM / NURS6540 FINAL EXAM (50 CORRECT Q & A) 2025

NURS 6540 FINAL EXAM / NURS6540 FINAL EXAM (50 CORRECT Q & A) NURS 6540 Final Exam / NURS6540 Final Exam (Latest): Walden University Question 1 How does women’s anatomy make them more susceptible to UTIs? Question 2 The primary endocrine disorders affecting women are diabetes mellitus and: Question 3 A common prenatal care model in which women have their first visit with one provider and then subsequent visits in a group setting is called: Question 4 When is round ligament pain most likely to occur in pregnant women? Question 5 0 out of 2 points Optimal weight gain during pregnancy is based on the woman’s prepregnant BMI and: Selected Answer: c. Nutritional assessment Question 6 In the formula to estimate gestational age, woman are considered pregnant from: ___________________________ Selected Answer: a. The first day of the last menstrual period Question 7 Gender differences in heart disease can be found in: Selected Answer: d. All of the above Question 8 What distinguishes pyelonephritis from cystitis? Selected Answer: b. The infection has ascended to the kidneys. Question 9 0 out of 2 points What has changed in terms of recommended antibiotic treatment for uncomplicated lower UTIs? Selected Answer: b. Three times a day of oral antibiotics are now recommended. Question 10 Carbohydrate intolerance and increased insulin resistance first recognized in pregnancy is known as: Selected Answer: b. Gestational diabetes Question 11 All except which of the following are important historical questions for a 29-year-old woman in clinic for right-sided weakness? Selected Answer: d. History of pelvic inflammatory disease Question 12 When can relief from pregnancy induces nausea and vomiting be expected? Selected Answer: b. 12–14 weeks’ gestation Question 13 What is a common cause of leg cramps during pregnancy? Selected Answer: a. An imbalance of calcium and magnesium Question 14 What is the leading cause of first-trimester maternal death? Selected Answer: a. Ectopic pregnancy Question 15 What do current theories suggest as to how cranberry products can reduce UTIs? Selected Answer: b. The fructose keeps E. coli bacteria from adhering to bladder cell walls. Question 16 Screening for hyperlipidemia is recommended to begin at what age for women with no risk factors? Selected Answer: c. 45 Question 17 Without treatment shortly after birth, as many as 90 percent of infants born to hepatitis B–infected mothers will: Selected Answer: d. Become infected Question 18 After how many weeks’ gestation is a pregnancy loss considered a fetal death or stillbirth? Selected Answer: c. 20 weeks Question 19 What is the general goal of surgical treatment for stress UI? Selected Answer: d. To support and stabilize the urethra Question 20 What is more likely to occur in women with female genital cutting? Selected Answer: b. Birth-related complications Question 21 What is an indication of the second stage of labor? Selected Answer: a. Complete dilation of the cervix Question 22 0 out of 2 points How are pregnancy-related DHA (docosahexaenoic acid) needs best met? Selected Answer: b. By taking a prenatal vitamin supplement Question 23 0 out of 2 points Qualitative urine testing for hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) can be done reliably ________ days after implantation of the blastocyst (fertilized egg). Selected Answer: c. 9–14 days Question 24 What is the most common cause of death in women in the United States? Selected Answer: b. Cardiovascular disease Question 25 What is the most common cause of medical complications in pregnancy? Selected Answer: a. Hypertension Question 26 What is the term for a postpartum disorder in which bacteria ascend from the lower genital tract and infect the uterus? Selected Answer: b. Postpartum endometritis Question 27 At what time during pregnancy does nausea typically occur? Selected Answer: b. At 6–8 weeks’ gestation Question 28 What is considered to be a common trigger of psoriasis? Selected Answer: a. Stress Question 29 Any woman with a complicated cystitis or symptoms of upper tract disease needs a urine culture and: Selected Answer: a. Sensitivity test Question 30 0 out of 2 points What is a potential benefit of circumcision? Selected Answer: a. Decreased incidence of urinary tract infections Question 31 How does the third stage of labor end? Selected Answer: b. With the delivery of the placenta Question 32 What is the most common disorder leading to hyperthyroidism? Selected Answer: b. Graves’ disease Question 33 0 out of 2 points Which of the following is a predictor of impending preterm birth? Selected Answer: b. Cervical length less than 15 mm Question 34 What is important to consider when vaginal bleeding occurs during the first trimester? Selected Answer: b. Ectopic pregnancy Question 35 What is significant about cytomegalovirus (CMV)? Selected Answer: b. It can remain dormant within the body for life. Question 36 What step can a clinician take to learn more about any chemicals used in a woman’s workplace? Selected Answer: c. Ask the woman to obtain her workplace MSDs (material safety data sheets). Question 37 What is the most typical schedule of prenatal care in the first 28 weeks of pregnancy? Selected Answer: d. Visits scheduled every 4 weeks Question 38 What significantly increases the risk of hypertension in women? Selected Answer: a. The onset of menopause Question 39 What is the potential danger of a fetus born through meconium-stained amniotic fluid? Selected Answer: b. The infant can breathe meconium into the lungs. Question 40 0 out of 2 points What was the reason that prenatal care began in the early 1900s? Selected Answer: b. To predict preterm births Question 41 What is the most common type of UTI that affects women? Selected Answer: a. Acute bacterial cystitis Question 42 0 out of 2 points Fever associated with pyelonephritis will usually resolve within how many hours of treatment with antibiotics? Selected Answer: a. 24 hours Question 43 How can hormonal influences during pregnancy cause backache? Selected Answer: a. They loosen ligaments and joints. Question 44 What tends to cause acne in adolescence? Selected Answer: d. An increase in testosterone Question 45 0 out of 2 points The majority of early pregnancy losses are due to: Selected Answer: d. Chromosomal abnormalities Question 46 What can be used as a space-filling device, replacing normal pressure on the vaginal walls when levator ani support is unreliable? Selected Answer: b. Tampons Question 47 0 out of 2 points What is the term for stimulation of the uterus by an external agent to enhance uterine contractions after labor has started? Selected Answer: b. Induction Question 48 What should be addressed during late postpartum maternal evaluation (weeks 2–6)? Selected Answer: b. The need for birth control information or supplies Question 49 In order to maintain continence bladder pressure must be Selected Answer: b. equal to the pressure of the urethral sphincter. Question 50 What is a contributor to the increased incidence of heartburn during pregnancy? Question 51 When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity?

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2025 Question Question 1 More than half of all cardiac arrhythmias involve the

NSG 6001 Week 5 Final Exam 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK 2025

Question Question 1 More than half of all cardiac arrhythmias involve the atria. True False Question 2. What are the most common symptoms caused by tachyarrhythmias? Sweating Thirst Palpitations Headaches Question 3. For women with known CAD and diabetes, which is most appropriate to assess CAD risk? ETT Coronary bypass surgery Coronary catheterization ETT with imaging Question 4. Of the following, which is the best answer when asked for an advantage of echocardiogram exercise testing over thallium stress testing? Does not depend on operator experience Costs are the same Results are available more quickly Doesn’t matter because there are no advantages Question 5. Your patient has uncomplicated pyelonephritis. In deciding your recommended treatment, you consider the most common pathogenic reason for this diagnosis. What pathogen accounts for the majority of pyelonephritis? E. Coli Gardnerella Vaginalis Mycoplasma Hominis Chlamydia Question 6. What purpose does the principle of fidelity serve in the provider/patient relationship? Ensures that providers honor their commitments to the patient Obligates the provider to a one-on-one relationship with the individual Ensures that patients receive whatever they want Maintains costs in the healthcare arena Question 7. In CAD, after both systolic and diastolic dysfunction have occurred, the typical pattern of chest pain and related EKG changes occur. During an EKG, you should expect to see ST-segment and T-wave changes that are central to demonstration of ischemia occurring relatively late in the ischemic cascade. Is this true or false? True False Question 8. The leads on the ECG showing ischemic changes during or immediately after an ETT can correlate roughly to the culprit artery or arteries with significant CAD. Is this true or false? True False Question 9. Skin cancer is the most common malignant neoplasm in males in the US. What is the second leading cause of cancer deaths in men greater than 50 years of age? Prostate cancer Lung cancer Lymphoma Lupus Question 10. What ECG changes can reduce the specificity of the ETT? Exercise induced bundle branch blocks Paced rhythm and resting bundle branch block Paced rhythm and exercise induced bundle branch blocks Low voltage up sloping of the ST-segment Question 11. You have confirmed that your patient does indeed have an abdominal aortic aneurysm. In teaching your patient about symptoms to report immediately to the vascular surgeon, you instruct the patient to report which of the following? Newly diagnosed diabetes Back pain or flank pain Visual disturbances Headaches Question 12. What is one of the common causes of a Saccular Abdominal Aneurysm? Poor kidney functioning Age Drugs: illicit and prescribed Trauma Question 13. The diagnostic accuracy of stress testing is decreased among women compared to men for what reasons? Women having thinner ventricular and septal muscles Women usually have single vessel or non-obstructive disease Women cannot exercise as vigorously as men Women typically have multiple vessel disease Question 14. Population disease management is a term used to describe: High specificity disease states Low specificity diseases states Low prevalence specific diseases High prevalence specific diseases Question 15. You receive a report back on the suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm for your patient. It confirms your suspicion of AAA. The report describes the aneurysm as a symmetric weakness of the entire circumference of the aorta. You know that this form of aneurysm is referred to as what kind of aneurysm? Thoracic aneurysm Budging sac aneurysm Saccular aneurysm Fusiform aneurysm Question 16. Your practice partner just ordered an exercise echocardiography 2DE for a patient with suspected cardiovascular risk. This patient has known resting wall motion abnormalities.Why would this not be the best test to assess this patient’s cardiac risk? Sensitivity is increased Sensitivity is decreased Specificity is increased Specificity is decreased Question 17. Your 60-year old male patient arrives for his appointment. He complains of general malaise and fever over the past several days with low back pain. He also states that he is getting up at night more often to urinate and never feels his bladder is completely empty.What differential diagnosis should you consider in this patient? Acute viral prostatitis Stomach virus Acute bacterial prostatitis BPH only Question 18. We all know that collaboration is integral to becoming a successful nurse practitioner. Among collaborations, however, only one can be considered as the most important. While each example below is important, which is the most important collaboration? The one that occurs: Between the nurse practitioner and their physician mentor Between two healthcare providers about a single patient Between the patient and their family Between the patient and the nurse practitioner Question 19. The sensitivity of a routine ETT is effort dependent. What physiological changes occur during effort in the routine ETT? Rapid heart rates and coronary artery narrowing Decrease in coronary blood flow Decreased heart rate and increased systolic blood pressure Increased coronary flow and increased systolic blood pressure Question 20. A 47-year old female with general complaints of fatigue and shortness of breath shows up in your clinic as a referral from another nurse practitioner. Several blood tests and chest x-rays have been completed without any diagnosis or outstanding abnormalities.You decide to order an ETT despite the fact that the recent ECG does not show any abnormalities. From the answers below, which would be the best answer to support your decision? You are out of other options CAD in women is under diagnosed To please the patient Women present with the same pattern of CAD as do males Question 21. Your patient underwent an exercise stress test for CAD. There is significant elevation of the ST-segment.What do you need to know about these changes to manage your patient’s care? : This patient needs to see someone more experienced in treatment of CAD These changes are predictive of myocardial infarction These changes have minimal predictive value for CAD These changes predict dire outcomes Question 22. When there is a consequential loss of structural integrity of the abdominal aorta, the resulting issue is what condition? Bloated stomach Kidney failure Bleeding ulcers Abdominal aortic aneurysm Question 23. You see a 60-year old African American male in your clinic with a recent diagnosis of hypertension. He asks you what he should restrict in his diet, and is particularly interested in limiting his sodium intake. What amount of sodium intake would you recommend on a daily basis for this patient? 1.5 g/day No added table salt 3.0 g/day 2.3 g/day Question 24. Why would inability to exercise reduce the specificity of the routine ETT? Produces QRS changes that cannot be interpreted Produces persistent ST-segmental changes and T-wave abnormalities Causes ST-segment changes and P-wave abnormalities Will not produce any changes in ECG Question 25. By standard criteria, how is a positive stress test defined? Development of a horizontal or down sloping ST-segment depression of 1mm Down sloping of the ST-segment at the J point of the QRS Development of a horizontal or down sloping ST-segment depression of 10mm Upward sloping ST-segment measured at the J point of the QRS Question 26. What are the two types of bradycardia recognized by the American Heart Association? Relative and absolute Absolute and pending Refractory and non-refractory Relative and dynamic Question 27. You see a 75-year old female in your clinic today complaining of urinary incontinence. She is otherwise healthy based upon her last visit. She states that her mother told her this would happen someday because it happens to every woman at some age. What would you tell this patient? This happens to all women as they age No need to worry. This is normal. Your mother was correct. This is not an expected condition related to aging. This happens to men as well and most women before your age. Question 28. What do you know regarding ischemia that is confined to only the posterior and or lateral segments of the left ventricle? ETT cannot be used for detection Difficult to detect by ETT Requires both for detection of changes by ETT Easier to detect by ETT Question 29. What three conditions definitely alter the results of echocardiography in determining CAD? Obesity, rapid heart rate and lung disease Diabetes, kidney disease and tooth decay Obesity, slow heart rates and hypertension Previous MI, hypotension and diabetes Question 30. Specifically, when is an ETT considered to be negative? Patient has ST-segmental changes with down sloping of greater than 1 mm at 50% of age-predicted maximum heart rate Patient exercises to 85% of age predicted maximum heart rate without evidence of induced ischemia Patient exercises to 20% maximum age-predicted heart rate without induced ischemia Patient exercises until tired without evidence of induced ischemia Question 31. All patients, even is asymptomatic, require risk stratification according to the Farmingham risk score. At present, ACC/AHA guidelines, however, do not normally support stress tests for asymptomatic patients without addiitonal justification. From the list below, what could be used to justify a ETT in an asymptomatic patient? A smoker of 3 weeks A member of congress Sedentary and wishes to begin aggressive exercise Developmentally challenged Question 32. BPH is not a risk factor for Prostate cancer. Is this statement true or false? True Question 33. Spread of genital herpes only occurs during the time period with active lesions. Is this statement true or false? True False(not confirm) Question 34. Abdominal aortic aneurysms are often asymptomatic. What percent of AAA’s are discovered in asymptomatic patients? 40% 20% 10% 75% Question 35. Improvements in the delivery and management of healthcare are necessary if we are to improve the overall health of this nation’s population. Which of the following are identified in your readings as strategic in the movement to improve the healthcare system? President and Congress Population management and healthcare practice Socialized medicine and governmental controls Monetary savings and limited disruption in healthcare delivery Question 36. What are the two main types of heart failure? Systolic and diastolic Hopeless and severe Left sided and main End diastolic and pressure related Question 37. The majority of all strokes are non-ischemic. Is this statement true or false? True False Question 38. When a murmur is first heard, it is important to determine if it is due to a pathological condition or benign. For an experienced practitioner, it is always easy to determine the cause of a murmur merely by listening to the sound. Is this statement true or false? True False Question 39. Maintenance of an Isometric ST-segment during exercise is the response of? A normal heart Hypo profusion An abnormal heart CAD Question 40. The goal of self-management is to specifically do what? Engage patients in their own care Engage insurance providers in patient care Engage providers in patient care Engage government in greater involvement in patient care Question 41. Your 56-year old patient presents with bradycardia with a rate of 55 and first degree AV block. The patient is hemodynamically stable and is not experiencing any syncope or chest pain. History includes previous myocardial infarction. Home medications include beta blockers, daily aspirin. Lab work is non-significant for electrolyte imbalance. You decided to treat this patient for the arrhythmia to prevent future destabilization. From the choices below, which might be the appropriate first measure to consider? Add digitalis to control the heart rate Consult cardiologist immediately for guidance Discontinue Beta Blocker and replace with another therapy if necessary Atropine injections Question 42. Your patient is morbidly obese and cannot sit on a bicycle or walk a treadmill. She also has marked and severe emphysema. You need to make an assessment of the risk of significant CAD and your patient’s family says that their relative had their diagnosis based on an ultrasound echocardiography. What facts would influence your decision regarding the family request for echo assessment? Sensitivity would be increased because of lung disease Specificity would be increased because of obesity Sensitivity would be reduced because of obesity and lung disease Specificity would be reduced because of obesity and lung disease Question 43. You are in the clinic with your mentor observing the Echocardiogram exercise test of a 45-year old male that has been experiencing slight chest pressure almost daily during exercise.While observing your patient, your mentor points out that the left ventricle wall is thinning and there is some hyperkinesias of the ventricular wall. From your time in the clinic, you know that this test will be considered to be what type of result? Negative Impossible Positive Non-readable Question 44. Your patient is newly diagnosed with persistent Atria Fibrillation. You consider electrocardioversion. Before undergoing this procedure you should order the following examination to assess thrombus risk. X-Ray of chest Tranesophageal echocardiography Ultrasound of chest CT Scan Question 45. Tachyarrhythmias cause a drop in commonly blood pressure, cardiac output, syncope, shortness of breath, and chest pain. What phenomenon most often occurs during these arrhythmias to cause these symptoms? Shortened diastole Lengthened diastole Lengthened systole Shortened systole Question 46. At what age is atria fibrillation most common? In childhood 60 years or older 30 years 45 years Question 47. Automaticity is a property common to all cardiac cells. Is this statement true or false? True False Question 48. Your patient has a maximum age-predicted heart rate of 180. During the exercise he reaches a heart rate of 140 and then states he can no longer exercise. You see evidence of ischemic changes on the ECG. This would be predictive of what condition? Stroke Significant CAD Impending death Low risk of CAD Question 49. You tell a patient that he has a murmur. He says he has been told this before, but wonders what causes the unique sounds of a murmur. Which of the following would be your best option? Turbulent flow of blood High pressures caused from HTN There is no reason, it just happens Almost always from a sclerotic valve Question 50. What is the treatment of choice for uncomplicated community-acquired cystitis? TMP-SMZ Any antibiotic will treat this diagnosis Amoxicillin Penicillin Question 51. Any patient presenting with symptomatic bradycardia should be referred to a cardiologist for management. Is this statement true or false? True False Question 52. Encouragement of patients to take effective actions in their own healthcare refers to the concept of: Self-management support Interprofessional support Physician or provider-driven care Family care givers Question 53. You are considering adding an adjunctive form of testing to detect wall motion abnormalities during the ETT.You select Echocardiography as the added testing. You choose this test because you know that echocardiography does what when added to a standard ETT? Enhances sensitivity and specificity of CAD detection Enhances sensitivity while reducing specificity of CAD detection Enhances specificity while not changing sensitivity of detection for CAD You like pretty pictures of wall motion Question 54. Medicaid is mandated to be provided by each state through federal codes. Each state must offer Medicaid exactly as the federal government prescribes. True or false? True False Question 55. What sexually transmitted disease is most widespread in the USA today? Chlamydia Gonorrhea Syphilis HIV/AIDS Question 56. Your preceptor decides to add Doppler Flow studies to the echocardiogram exercise test for a patient with a recent history of a holistic murmur best auscultated at the left steral boarder. The patient has no history of cardiac surgeries. He asks you what might be the main advantages of adding Doppler Flow for this particular patient. You know from your readings that there are several reasons to add Doppler Flow and below are listed more than one correct reason. Your best response for this specific case, however, would be that Doppler Flow studies would be of what additive value during the echocardiogram study? Detect and evaluate blood shunting from a septal defect No advantage is seen for this patient Gives better screen shots of wall abnormalities Provides assessment of prosthetic valve function Question 57. Sexual partners of a patient with a diagnosed STI should always be examined and treated. Is this statement true or false? True False Question 58. Your patient presents with tachycardia. The QRS is measured at 0.10 seconds. Which of the following tachycardias would be an appropriate conclusion based on this information alone? Ventricular tachycardias Premature junctional contractions Atria fibrillation Ventricular fibrillation Question 59. A 65-year old white male arrives in your clinic with general complaints of slight abdominal discomfort. He has a known history of smoking two packs per day for 40 years and hypertension. He also has COPD and has been treated numerous times with oral steroids. You consider several optional diagnoses. Of the ones listed below, which should be included as a potential top suspect in your choice of diagnosis? Chronic bowel obstruction Meglacolon Appendicitis Abdominal aortic aneurysm Question 60. What are the most common mechanisms to produce cardiac arrhythmias? Decreased automaticity, triggered activity or reentry Reentry, electrical dysfunction or activity Stress, hard work or swimming Enhanced automaticity, triggered activity or reentry

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2025 Question 1 A patient asks the nurse practitioner about food sources such as soybeans and soy

Walden NURS6521 Week 11 Quiz 2017 2025

Question 1 A patient asks the nurse practitioner about food sources such as soybeans and soy products . The nurse practitioner understands that these foods are considered A) phytoestrogens. B) monotherapy. C) taboo. D) inappropriate Question 2 A 12-year-old boy is being discharged from the hospital after major surgery . The boy will be taking two medications at home for an extended period . The nurse who is discharging the patient should provide medication teaching specifically to A) the mother regarding why the boy needs to take the medications. B) both the boy and his mother regarding all medication issued. C) the boy by telling him not to worry about the medications and to take them as directed D) The mother and be sure to reinforce the need to force the medications, if her sondoes not want to take them Question 3 A 15-year-old boy who has been taking dextroamphetamine for the treatment of ADHD has been experiencing a depressed mood and a sense of hopelessness . He confides in the school nurse that he has begun taking his stepfather’s antidepressant to improve his mood . After immediately phoning the boy’s stepfather, the nurse learns that the drug in question is phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) . The nurse should recognize that this combination of drugs creates a serious risk of what health problem? A) Cardiac dysrhythmia B) Hypertensive crisis C) Nephrotoxicity D) Hypokalemia Question 4 A child is admitted to the burn unit with second and third degree burns on both arms and part of his or her face . When administering topical medications to the burned areas, the nurse should A) cool the medication prior to administration. B) use sterile technique when applying the medication. C) allow the child to apply the medication if possible. D) use clean technique only when applying the medication. Question 5 A patient is being seen in the emergency department for a sprained ankle and is given a drug to relieve pain . When a second dose of the pain medication is given, the patient develops redness of the skin, itching, and swelling at the site of injection of the drug . The most likely cause of this response is A) a hepatotoxic response. B) an idiosyncratic response. C) a paradoxical response. D) an allergic response. Question 6 A 5-year-old boy needs an IM injection . The least painful and most effective injection site would be the A) deltoid muscle. B) rectus femoris muscle. C) ventrogluteal muscle. D) dorsogluteal muscle. Question 7 A patient reports to a clinic with complaints of breast tenderness, a right lumpy breast, and no breast discharge . The breast tenderness occurs primarily during her menstrual cycle . The nurse practitioner probably suspects A) breast cancer B) PMS C) pain in the heart D) cancerous breast tenderness Question 8 A 29-year-old woman who is morbidly obese has recently begun a comprehensive, medically-supervised program of weight reduction . Prior to adding dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) to her regimen, the patient should be questioned about her intake of A) alcohol. B) trans fat. C) caffeine. D) grapefruit juice. Question 9 A nurse is caring for a 10-year-old boy who complains of chronic headaches . His mother reports that she gives him Tylenol at least three times a day . Which of the following will the nurse work with the physician to evaluate? A) Renal function B) Hepatic function C) Respiratory function D) Cardiac function Question 10 A 21-year-old female has a history of irregular menses . She recently became sexually active, and would like to begin taking oral contraceptives (OCs) . The nurse practitioner recognizes that most likely this patient would benefit from taking which category of OCs . A) Monophasic B) Triphasic OC C) Ortho Tri-Cyclen D) Biphasic OC Question 11 A nurse who provides care on a pediatric medicine unit has conducted a medication reconciliation of a recently-admitted patient . In light of the fact that the child takes methylphenidate (Ritalin), the nurse is justified in considering a history of what health problem? A) Anxiety B) Respiratory depression C) Obesity D) ADHD Question 12 A nurse working in a cancer center is preparing to administer medication to a 5-year-old child . The nurse will calculate the drug dosage by using A) body surface area. B) weight. C) age in months. D) age in years. Question 13 A 13-year-old female took a weight loss drug that activated the sympathetic nervous system . Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect? A) Decreased myocardial contraction B) Decreased heart rate C) Increased cardiac conduction D) Increased intranodal conduction time Question 14 A 6-month-old child has developed skin irritation due to an allergic reaction . He has been prescribed a topical skin ointment . The nurse will consider which of the following before administering the drug? A) That the infant’s skin has greater permeability than that of an adult B) That there is less body surface area to be concerned about C) That there is decreased absorption rates of topical drugs in infants D) That there is a lower concentration of water in an infant’s body compared with an adult Question 15 A nurse is providing patient education to a 13-year-old girl who was just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus . Which of the following statements by the patient will alert the nurse that special instructions regarding insulin are necessary? A) “I walk two blocks to school every day.” B) “I am on the middle school track team.” C) “We live in a two-story house.” D) “My mother is going to give me my insulin.” Question 16 A nurse who provides care on a pediatric unit of a hospital is aware that the potential for harm as a result of drug errors is higher among infants and children than adults . This fact is primarily due to A) the inability of infants and children and describe symptoms of adverse drug reactions. B) increased body surface area relative to body volume in infants and children. C) increased heart rate and subsequently rapid drug distribution among infants and children. D) immature liver and kidney function in infants and children. Question 17 A nurse practitioner orders 150 mg of oral fluconazole for a patient with vulvovaginal candidiasis . The patient should expect to take medication A) for 20 days. B) once a day. C) every day until the infection is gone. D) for 30 days. Question 18 To which of the following patients would a medication nurse most likely administer caffeine as part of the treatment plan? A) A preterm neonate who has apnea B) A 34-year-old woman with a diagnosis of gastric ulcerations C) A school-age child with severe ADHD D) A 52-year-old man with narcolepsy Question 19 A nurse works at a weight management clinic . To which of the following overweight patients could the nurse safely administer dextroamphetamine? A) A 38-year-old Caucasian woman with glaucoma B) A 60-year-old African-American man who experiences angina C) A 48-year-old Caucasian man who has adult-onset diabetes D) A 28-year-old African-American woman with hyperthyroidism Question 20 A 3-year-old boy has developed otitis media and requires antibiotics . In order to increase the chance that the boy will take his prescribed medication, the nurse should A) teach the boy about the fact that he will feel much better after he takes his medications. B) have the mother hold the child firmly and sooth him while the drugs are administered. C) offer a choice between liquid and chewable medications, if possible. D) insert a central intravenous line. Question 21 The recommended treatment for trichomoniasis is A) Flagyl. B) Diflucan. C) Meclizine. D) Amoxicillan Question 22 A school nurse has been teaching high school students about the risks associated with marijuana use . However, the nurse has been met with considerable skepticism on the part of students, most of whom believe that marijuana is a benign drug . Which of the following teaching points should the nurse provide? A) “Most people don’t know that marijuana can be just as addictive as heroin or cocaine over time.” B) “Marijuana can easily interact with other drugs and cause potentially fatal reactions.” C) “Every year, thousands of Americans end up in emergency departments with marijuana overdoses.” D) “Smoking marijuana is just as bad, or worse, for your lungs as smoking cigarettes.” Question 23 A nurse is going to administer medication to an infant using a medicine dropper . The best method is to open the child’s mouth by gently squeezing the cheeks and placing the drops A) at the back of the mouth. B) in the buccal pouch. C) under the tongue. D) on top of the tongue. Question 24 A nurse is obtaining baseline physical data from a 7-year-old patient who is to be started on dextroamphetamine for ADHD . After obtaining vital signs, height, and weight, the nurse will prepare the patient for an A) electrocardiogram (ECG). B) electromyelogram (EMG). C) electroencephalogram (EEG). D) electrophysiologic study (EPS). Question 25 A 10-year-old boy is taking dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) daily for ADHD . At each clinic visit, the nurse’s priority assessment would be A) height and weight. B) Vision. C) body temperature. D) blood pressure. Question 26 A 7-year-old child has been taking tetracycline for a bacterial infection . The nurse will be sure to inform the parents that this drug could cause A) orange-tinged urine. B) staining of permanent teeth. C) sleep deprivation. D) deep muscle pain. Question 27 A nurse is administering drugs to a 10-year-old child who has multiple health problems . The child is underweight and is on a special diet . Which of the following will the nurse consider when planning for the best absorption of the prescribed drugs? (Select all that apply . ) A) Age B) Weight C) Disease process D) Diet E) Route of administration ACDE Question 28 The clinical nurse educator who oversees the emergency department in a children’s hospital has launched an awareness program aimed at reducing drug errors . What measure addresses the most common cause of incorrect doses in the care of infants and children? A) Having nurses check their math calculations with a colleague before administering a drug. B) Ensuring that a full assessment takes place no more than 30 minutes before giving a drug. C) Recording drug administration in both the nurse’s notes and the medication administration record (MAR) D) Avoiding intravenous administration of drugs whenever possible. Question 29 A 15-year-old boy has been diagnosed with bone cancer after several months of fatigue and pain . What question should the nurse include in an assessment when trying to minimize the potential for adverse drug reactions? A) “Do you ever use alcohol or drugs?” B) “How much do you weigh?” C) “On a scale of zero to ten, what level of pain is acceptable to you?” D) “Did Tylenol or other over-the-counter pain remedies ever relieve your pain?” Question 30 A 35-year-old woman is on a weight-loss program and is to begin taking sibutramine (Meridia) . After baseline physical data are obtained, the nurse will assess the patient’s childbearing potential . The nurse will inform the patient that during sibutramine therapy she should A) abstain from sex. B) obtain a pap smear . C) use adequate contraception. D) take a pregnancy test every month. Question 31 A 16-year-old boy is prescribed cromolyn sodium nasal spray to treat a nasal allergy . To maximize the therapeutic effects of the drug, which of the following will the nurse include in instructions to the patient? A) Take the drug on a full stomach B) Avoid high noise levels C) Take the drug for one full week before coming in contact with allergens D) Drink plenty of fluids. Question 32 A 19-year-old patient reports to a clinic with vaginal discharge with a foul odor . A microscopic exam reveals trichomonas vaginalis . The nurse practitioner is aware that A) trichomoniasis is an incurable disease. B) trichomoniasis discharge is typically thin and clear. C) asymptomatic women are diagnosed with trichomoniasis by a routine pap smear. D) it is unusual to have an odor with trichomoniasis Question 33 A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a minor ailment and is to be administered medications at home for 2 weeks . The child lives with his mother, grandmother, and four other children between the ages of 14 months and 7 years . The home health nurse is asked to assess the home environment to determine if it is appropriate for the child to take his medication at home . Which of the following will have the greatest impact on the nurse’s assessment? A) The mother and grandmother’s understanding about the drugs B) How clean the house is C) The health status of the other children D) Where the medications will be stored Question 34 A nurse is having difficulty administering a bitter drug to a 5-year-old child . The nurse should A) have the parent gently force the child’s mouth open. B) give the drug in a pill form. C) involve the child in a play therapy session, and then tell the child that the medicine is candy. D) offer the child a flavored ice chip or ice pop prior to administering the drug. Question 35 A 22-year-old woman has given birth to an infant who exhibits the signs and symptoms of maternal cocaine use during pregnancy . These signs and symptoms are a result of what pathophysiological effect of opioid use during pregnancy? A) Changes in blood chemistry as a result of nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity B) Impaired maternal nutrition as a result of drug use C) Vasoconstriction leading to reduced placental blood flow D) Hypoxia as a result of a prolonged second stage of labor Question 36 A preterm neonate received caffeine for the treatment of apnea . The nurse should monitor the neonate for which of the following? A) Bloody stools B) Bradycardia C) Constipation D) Hypoglycemia Question 37 A 30-year-old man with a BMI of 59 has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus . In light of the man’s lack of success with weight loss programs in the past, his care provider has prescribed sibutramine (Meridia) . What instructions should the nurse consequently provide to this patient? A) “Take this drug once each day on an empty stomach.” B) “It’s best to take a dose of sibutramine after each meal.” C) “This drug will help you to lose weight without having to exercise or change your normal diet.” D) “Take a dose when you feel like you are tempted to binge on food.” Question 38 A nurse practitioner orders a single dose of 2 g Metronidazole orally . How many milligrams will the patient receive in one dose? A) 1000 mg B) 2000 mg C) 3000 mg D) 4000 mg Question 39 A nurse is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old child suffering from angina why nitroglycerin patches for chest pain would not be appropriate . Which of the following will the nurse include in an explanation? A) A child has an erratic blood flow from an immature peripheral circulation, which increases drug absorption, causing an increase in adverse effects. B) A child’s gastric pH is decreased, causing less of the drug to be absorbed from the subcutaneous skin, therefore producing more adverse effects. C) A child has a greater body surface area, creating greater permeability resulting in an increase in absorption of topical agents, which may result in more adverse effects. D) A child has a smaller body surface area, resulting in an increase in topical absorption, which can cause more adverse effects. Question 40 An immunocompromised 7-year-old child was recently discharged home with a peripherally-inserted central line (PIC line) for home antibiotic therapy . He has now been brought to the emergency department by his mother and father with signs and symptoms of line sepsis . Upon questioning, the mother states that she has been removing the PIC dressing daily and washing the site with warm water and a cloth . What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation? A) Caregiver Role Strain B) Ineffective Family Therapeutic Regimen Management C) Delayed Growth and Development D) Knowledge Deficit

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2025 No Plegarism please assignment will be checked with Turnitin SOAP Note Section I

MN552 SOAP Note with Genogram 2025

No Plegarism please, assignment will be checked with Turnitin. SOAP Note Section I and Genogram Please select a volunteer friend or family member to interview and gather data to complete this Assignment. This section of the SOAP note will include the chief complaint, history of present illness, and family/social/personal history data. Click here for the written guide for this Assignment. The guide will assist you in gathering subjective data in an organized, systematic manner to prevent omission of important components of the health history. Make sure you address all content as noted in the written guide. Include the genogram together with this Assignment as one document. You may search the Web to locate a suitable genogram diagram to input data. Only include three generations in the genogram depiction.

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