2025 Using the patient information provided respond to the following questions a What cultural considerations are important

Please follow instructions. Write at least 260 words. Academic References need. APA Format. 2025

Using the patient information provided, respond to the following questions: (a) What cultural considerations are important for you to remember while you interview Ms. Li? (b) What is the abuse assessment screen? (c) If abuse is discovered, what should you do? Patient Information: Patient: Sue Li Age: 20 Ethnicity: Asian American

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2025 Prepare a 10 minute presentation 10 15 slides not including title or reference slide on organizational culture and

Business Writer 2025

Prepare a 10-minute presentation (10-15 slides, not including title or reference slide) on organizational culture and values. Describe how alignment between the values of an organization and the values of the nurse impact nurse engagement and patient outcomes. Discuss how an individual can use effective communication techniques to overcome workplace challenges, encourage collaboration across groups, and promote effective problem solving. Incorporate how system needs and the culture of health may influence the outcomes. How does this relate to health promotion and disease prevention in the larger picture? Identify a specific instance from your own professional experience in which the values of the organization and the values of the individual nurses did or did not align. Describe the impact this had on nurse engagement and patient outcomes. While APA style format is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected and in-text citations and references should be presented using APA documentation guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. You are not required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.

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2025 Research a health care organization or a network that spans several states within the U S Example United Healthcare Vanguard Banner

A-plus writer 2025

Research a health care organization or a network that spans several states within the U.S. (Example: United Healthcare, Vanguard, Banner Healthcare, etc.). Harvard Business Review Online and Hoover’s Company Records, found in the GCU Library, are useful sources. You may also find pertinent information on your organization’s webpage. Review “Singapore Airlines Case Study.” Prepare a 1,000-1250-word paper that focuses on the organization or network you have selected. Your essay should assess the readiness of the health care organization or network in addressing the health care needs of citizens in the next decade, and include a strategic plan that addresses issues pertaining to network growth, nurse staffing, resource management, and patient satisfaction. Provide a comparison to the health care organization or network and the Singapore Airlines. Include any cultural issues that may influence the practices listed above. Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

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2025 Walden NURS6501 Week 9 Quiz latest 2017 Question 1 A patient wants to know what can cause

NURS6501 Week 9 Quiz latest 2017 2025

Walden NURS6501 Week 9 Quiz latest 2017 Question 1 A patient wants to know what can cause ACTH to be released.How should the nurse respond? a. High serum levels of cortisol b. Hypotension c. Hypoglycemia d. Stress Question 2 A student asks the instructor which of the following is the most potent naturally occurring glucocorticoid. How should the instructor respond? a. Aldosterone b. Testosterone c. Cortisol d. Prolactin Question 3 A patient has researched lipid-soluble hormones on the Internet. Which information indicates the patient has a good understanding? Lipid-soluble hormone receptors cross the plasma membrane by: a. Diffusion b. Osmosis c. Active transport d. Endocytosis Question 4 A 45-year-old female has elevated thyroxine production.Which of the following would accompany this condition? a. Increased thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH) b. Increased anterior pituitary stimulation c. Decreased T4 d. Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Question 5 A 40-year-old male undergoes surgery for a PTH-secreting tumor in which the parathyroid is removed. Which of the following would the nurse expect following surgery? a. Increased serum calcium b. Decreased bone formation c. Decreased calcium reabsorption in the kidney d. Increased calcitonin Question 6 A 35-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. While the nurse is reviewing the lab tests, which results would the nurse expect to find? a. High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating antibodies b. Ectopic secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) c. Low circulating levels of thyroid hormones d. Increased circulation of iodine Question 7 A 12-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which of the following tests should the nurse prepare the patient to best confirm the diagnosis? a. Fasting plasma glucose levels b. Random serum glucose levels c. Genetic testing d. Glycosylated hemoglobin measurements Question 8 A 25-year-old male presents with fatigue, constipation, and sexual dysfunction. Tests reveal all pituitary hormones are normal and no masses are present. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of his symptoms is a dysfunction in the: a. Anterior pituitary b. Posterior pituitary c. Pars intermedia d. Pituitary stalk Question 9 While planning care for a patient from general anesthesia, which principle should the nurse remember? A side effect of some general anesthetic agents is _____ diabetes insipidus. a. Neurogenic b. Nephrogenic c. Psychogenic d. Allogenic Question 10 When insulin binds to its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells occurs. This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone. a. Pharmacologic b. Permissive c. Biphasic d. Direct Question 11 Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus (DM), and SIADH share which of the following assessment manifestations? a. Polyuria b. Edema c. Vomiting d. Thirst Question 12 An endocrinologist isolated a new hormone and found it to be a water-soluble amine. Which of the following is most like this new hormone? a. Growth hormone (GH) b. Luteinizing hormone (LH) c. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) d. Epinephrine Question 13 A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (lung infection) is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH).Which of the following electrolyte imbalances would be expected in this patient? a. Hyponatremia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypernatremia d. Hypokalemia Question 14 A patient wants to know why ADH is important in the body.What is the nurse’s best response? ADH is important in: a. The body’s water balance and urine concentration b. Maintaining electrolyte levels and concentrations c. Follicular maturation d. Regulation of metabolic processes Question 15 A 35-year-old female took corticosteroid therapy for several months. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find? a. Renal toxicity b. Episodes of hypoglycemia c. Hypotension d. Type 2 DM Question 16 If the patient has a problem with the pineal gland, which substance would the nurse monitor? a. Melatonin b. Epinephrine c. Cortisol d. Somatostatin Question 17 A 50-year-old male patient presents with polyuria and extreme thirst. He was given exogenous ADH. For which of the following conditions would this treatment be effective? a. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus b. Psychogenic diabetes insipidus c. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus d. SIADH Question 18 While planning care for a patient with hypothyroidism, which principle should the nurse remember? The basal metabolic rate is unusually _____ with hypothyroidism. a. High b. Low c. Steady d. Variable Question 19 If a patient’s posterior pituitary is removed, which hormone would the nurse expect to decrease? a. PRF b. ADH c. ACTH d. GH Question 20 An aide asks the nurse what is the most common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. How should the nurse respond? a. Autoimmune disease b. Cancer c. Pregnancy d. Heart failure Question 21 What common neurologic disturbances should the nurse assess for in a patient with a pituitary adenoma? a. Coma b. Visual disturbances c. Confused states d. Breathing abnormalities Question 22 A 50-year-old female presents with lightheadedness and overall abnormal feelings. Hyperaldosteronism is diagnosed. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect? a. Hypovolemia b. Hypotension c. Hypokalemia d. Hyponatremia Question 23 A 19-year-old female with type 1 DM was admitted to the hospital with the following lab values: serum glucose 500 mg/dl (high), urine glucose and ketones 4+ (high), and arterial pH 7.20 (low). Her parents state that she has been sick with the “flu” for a week. Which of the following statements best explains her acidotic state? a. Increased insulin levels promote protein breakdown and ketone formation. b. Her uncontrolled diabetes has led to renal failure. c. Low serum insulin promotes lipid storage and a corresponding release of ketones. d. Insulin deficiency promotes lipid metabolism and ketone formation. Question 24 A 25-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting changes in facial features. CT scan reveals a mass on the anterior pituitary, and lab tests reveal severely elevated growth hormone (GH). Which of the following would the nurse also expect to find? a. Decreased IGF-1 b. Hypotension c. Sexual dysfunction d. Height increases Question 25 A nurse recalls insulin has an effect on which of the following groups of electrolytes? a. Sodium, chloride, phosphate b. Calcium, magnesium, potassium c. Hydrogen, bicarbonate, chloride d. Potassium, magnesium, phosphate Question 26 A 12-year-old female is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. When the parents ask what causes this, what is the nurse’s best response? a. A familial, autosomal dominant gene defect b. Obesity and lack of exercise c. Immune destruction of the pancreas d. Hyperglycemia from eating too many sweets Question 27 When a patient wants to know what most commonly causes hypoparathyroidism, how should the nurse reply? It is most commonly caused by: a. Pituitary hyposecretion b. Parathyroid adenoma c. Parathyroid gland injury d. Hypothalamic inactivity Question 28 A 50-year-old male patient is deficient in ADH production.Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect to find? a. Increased blood volume b. Increased urine osmolality c. Increased urine volume d. Increased arterial vasoconstriction Question 29 A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with hypothyroidism.Synthesis of which of the following would decrease in this patient? a. Corticosteroid B globulin b. Sex hormone-binding globulin c. Thyroid-binding globulin d. Albumin Question 30 A 22-year-old male is admitted to the intensive care unit with a closed head injury sustained in a motorcycle accident. The injury has caused severe damage to the posterior pituitary. Which of the following complications should the nurse anticipate? a. Dilutional hyponatremia b. Dehydration from polyuria c. Cardiac arrest from hyperkalemia d. Metabolic acidosis Question 31 A patient has high levels of hormones. To adapt to the high hormone concentrations, the patient’s target cells have the capacity for: a. Negative feedback b. Positive feedback c. Down-regulation d. Up-regulation Question 32 A 25-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Palpation of her neck would most likely reveal: a. A normal-sized thyroid b. A small discrete thyroid nodule c. Multiple discrete thyroid nodules d. Diffuse thyroid enlargement Question 33 A 30-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting visual disturbances. CT reveals a pituitary tumor and lab tests reveal elevated prolactin. He is diagnosed with prolactinoma. Which of the following treatments would the nurse help implement? a. Dopaminergic agonists b. Calcium c. Insulin d. Radiation Question 34 A 3-year-old male was diagnosed with congenital hypothyroidism. The parents ask the nurse if left untreated what will happen.What is the nurse’s best response? If left untreated, the child would have: a. Mental retardation and stunted growth b. Increased risk of childhood thyroid cancer c. Hyperactivity and attention deficit disorder d. Liver, kidney, and pancreas failure Question 35 Visual disturbances are a common occurrence in patients with untreated Graves disease. The endocrinologist explains to the patient that the main cause of these complications is: a. Decreased blood flow to the eye b. Orbital edema and protrusion of the eyeball c. TSH neurotoxicity to retinal cells d. Local lactic acidosis

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2025 Complex Systems Organizational Learning and Improving the Quality of Care Please respond to the following Elaborate on the major

Needed ASAP! Within 5 hours! Only 5-7 sentences needed! Please review entire discussion question before you agree! 2025

“Complex Systems, Organizational Learning, and Improving the Quality of Care” Please respond to the following: Elaborate on the major reasons why, according to the text, health care systems can be considered complex. Next, argue a case for double-loop against single-loop learning in organizational learning. Support your response with at least one (1) example of the advantages of double-loop learning. Common industry knowledge dictates that in order to achieve desired outcomes in quality improvement in health care organizations, the leadership must consider multiple factors. Speculate on the main reasons why focusing on processes is a highly regarded practice for improving the performance of health care organizations. Support your response with at least two (2) examples of increased value and / or performance in the researched hospital from the e-Activity.

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2025 FNU Physical Assessment in Health Care Quiz Question 1 Which of the following is a relatively benign condition that

FNU Physical Assessment in Health Care Quiz 2025

FNU Physical Assessment in Health Care Quiz Question 1 Which of the following is a relatively benign condition that may occur during pregnancy or labor? a. Macular degeneration b. Papilledema c. Subconjunctival hemorrhage d. Cupping of the optic disc Question 2 Which maneuver can be done to reduce the systemic absorption of cycloplegic and mydriatic agents when examining a pregnant woman if the examination is mandatory? a. Have the woman keep her eyes closed for several minutes. b. Instill half the usual dosage. c. Keep the patient supine, with her head turned and flexed. d. Use nasolacrimal occlusion after instillation Question 3 When there is an imbalance found with the corneal light test, you should then perform the ___________ test. a. confrontation b. accommodation c. cover–uncover d. visual acuity Question 4 White specks scattered in a linear pattern around the entire circumference of the iris are called: a. drusen bodies. b. cotton wool spots. c. rust spots. d. Brushfield spots. Question 5 Which of the following may be suggestive of Down syndrome? a. Drusen bodies b. Papilledema c. Narrow palpebral fissures d. Prominent epicanthal folds Question 6 You are attempting to examine the eyes of a newborn. To facilitate eye opening, you would first: a. dim the room lights. b. elicit pain. c. place him in the supine position. d. shine the penlight in his or her eyes. Question 7 When testing corneal sensitivity controlled by cranial nerve V, you should expect the patient to respond by: a. brisk blinking. b. copious tearing. c. pupil dilation. d. reflex smiling. Question 8 Xanthelasma may suggest that the patient has an abnormality of: a. lipid metabolism. b. cognitive function. c. renal metabolism. d. bone marrow function. Question 9 You observe pupillary response as the patient looks at a distant object and then at an object held 10 cm from the bridge of the nose.You are assessing for: a. confrontation reaction. b. accommodation. c. pupillary light reflex. d. nystagmus. Question 10 Which of the following findings, when seen in the infant, is ominous? a. Difficulty tracking objects with the eyes b. Appearing to have better peripheral than central vision c. Blinking when bright light is directed at the face d. White pupils on photographs Question 11 When you ask the patient to identify smells, you are assessing cranial nerve __. Ans: 1 Question 12 Which risk factor is associated with the highest rate of oral cancers? a. Women b. Being younger than 55 years c. excessive caffeine use d. Fanconi anemia Question 13 You are interviewing a parent whose child has a fever, is pulling at her right ear, and is irritable. You ask the parent about the child’s appetite and find that the child has a decreased appetite. This additional finding is more suggestive of: a. acute otitis media. b. otitis externa. c. serous otitis media. d. middle ear effusion. Question 14 Which of the following signs and symptoms occur with a sensorineural hearing loss? (Select all that apply.) a. Air conduction shorter than bone conduction b. Lateralization to the affected ear c. Loss of high-frequency sounds d. Speaks more loudly e. Disorder of the inner ear f. Air conduction longer than bone conduction Question 15 Which variation may be an expected finding in the ear examination of a newborn? a. Diffuse light reflex b. Purulent material in the ear canal c. Redness and swelling of the mastoid process d. Small perforations of the tympanic membrane Question 16 White, rounded, or oval ulcerations surrounded by a red halo and found on the oral mucosa are: a. Fordyce spots. b. aphthous ulcers. c. Stensen ducts. d. leukoedema. Question 17 You are performing Weber and Rinne hearing tests. For the Weber test, the sound lateralized to the unaffected ear; for the Rinne test, air conduction–to–bone conduction ratio is less than 2:1. You interpret these findings as suggestive of: a. a defect in the inner ear. b. a defect in the middle ear. c. otitis externa. d. impacted cerumen. Question 18 You are performing hearing screening tests. Who would be expected to find difficulty in hearing the highest frequencies? a. 7 b. 12 c. 20 d. 40 e. 65 Question 19 Which abnormality is common during pregnancy? a. Eruption of additional molars b. Hypertrophy of the gums c. Otitis externa d. Otitis media Question 20 You are using a pneumatic attachment on the otoscope while assessing tympanic membrane movement. You gently squeeze the bulb but see no movement of the membrane. Your next action should be to: a. remove all cerumen from the canal. b. make sure the speculum is sealed form outside air. c. squeeze the bulb with more force. d. insert the speculum to depth of 2 cm. Question 21 Which of the following is an expected change in the assessment of the thyroid during pregnancy? a. Palpation of the gland becomes difficult. b. A bruit is auscultated. c. Inspection reveals a goiter. d. The gland is tender on palpation Question 22 Which type of headache usually occurs at night, is precipitated by alcohol consumption, and occurs more often in men than in women? a. Classic migraine b. Temporal arteritis c. Cluster d. Hypertensive Question 23 Which of the following is true regarding caput succedaneum? a. It is a subperiosteal collection of blood. b. It is firm and its edges are well defined. c. It develops several days after delivery. d. It is seen over the presenting part of thehead Question 24 You are palpating a patient’s thyroid and find that its broadest dimension measures 4 cm. The right lobe is 25% larger than the left.These data would indicate: a. a congenital anomaly. b. a normal thyroid gland. c. a multinodular goiter. d. thyroiditis. Question 25 Which of the following findings would be consistent with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)? a. Corneal clouding b. Eye slanting c. Mild ptosis d. Symmetric, bulging fontanels Question 26 Which of the following is a chronic autoimmune disorder? a. tenosynovitis b. fibromyalgia c. rhabdomyolysis d. myasthenia gravis Question 27 Which cranial nerves innervate the face? a. II and V b. III and VI c. V and VII d. VIII and IX Question 28 You are examining Ms. L, age 78 years. You find a sunken appearance of her eyes, cheeks, and temporal areas. Her skin is dry, and her nose appears sharp. This description of Ms. L’s facies is associated with: a. cutis laxa syndrome. b. Hurler syndrome. c. old age. d. terminal illness. Question 29 Which of the following is true regarding a cephalohematoma? a. It is bound by suture lines. b. The affected part feels soft. c. It is obvious at birth. d. The margins are poorly defined Question 30 Which is the best way to position a patient’s neck for palpation of the thyroid? a. Flexed away from the side being examined b. Flexed directly forward c. Flexed toward the side being examined d. Hyperextended directly backward

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2025 Answer the following case study in an APA formatted paper Research sources to answer this

Day two assignment 2025

Answer the following case study in an APA formatted paper. Research sources to answer this question must be identified in your paper. “The Davis family consists of Andrea, age 46 years; Thomas, age 48; maternal grandmother Theresa, age 79; Thomas Jr., age 20; Claire, age 17; and Megan, age 15. They all live together in a two-story, four-bedroom house. The house has a total of three bathrooms: two are on the top floor, and one is located in the finished portion of the basement. Thomas Jr. has his own bedroom, whereas the girls, Claire and Megan, share a room. Grandmother Theresa sleeps in her own room next to the girls’ room. Thomas has been smoking two packs of cigarettes a day since he was a teenager. He has a strong wish to quit smoking but has yet to find a way to be successful. Thomas works as a millwright in a lumberyard. In recent years he has been complaining of intermittent back pain. His last physical examination was 2 years ago. Tests showed that he was in good general health except for being 15 pounds overweight. Andrea and the children are in good health. Theresa has arthritis that makes walking difficult.” What family type and stage does the Davis family represent? What health needs can you identify for these family members?

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2025 Hello dear can you help me to finish this assignment with good quality of work

Chronic and Communicable Disease( healthmap) 2025

Hello dear, can you help me to finish this assignment with good quality of work and be on time. thanks, The goal of this assignment is to investigate the healthmap.org website each week (1-4) and find new and specific outbreaks that has found its way into the general population. Your focus will be to record three new outbreaks in all various parts of the world- North, South, East, and West regions of the world throughout the four weeks of class. Complete the following for each of the three outbreaks: Name the communicable disease. Name the location- City, County, State, Region, Territory and so on. Describe the specifics of the outbreak including causes and symptoms. How many cases have been confirmed and who has been affected? What is being done to prevent the spread of the disease?

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2025 INSTRUCTIONS The Case of Marisol Marisol is a 40 year old single female from

case 2025

INSTRUCTIONS The Case of Marisol Marisol is a 40-year old single female from a tight knit Puerto Rican family. She is employed full time as a data analyst for a technology company. She has steadily progressed in her career by working for relatively small companies where her role allowed her to work relatively independently. Unfortunately, working for small organizations was less stable financially so she has been working for a larger company for the past four years. Interacting with a larger work group has challenged her comfort zone. She prefers to spend time with a network of close friends she has known most of her life whom she visits with one on one. Her family lives in the area, and she sees them frequently. Her parents and older brother have always provided a support system and practical help. She enjoys quiet evenings alone or at the home of her brother and his family. Her friends and family privately wonder why she’s never dated or wanted to travel. For each case study, you will complete a descriptive diagnosis using tools you select from the list of assessment tools provided later in the assignment. Each case requires the following information to be addressed: Identify presenting concerns from the client’s perspective as described in the video and accompanying narrative. Include relevant cultural and systemic considerations that frame the client’s presentation. Describe what information is still needed to make a differential diagnosis and evaluate how at least one assessment tool, which is listed in the List of Assessment Tools resource, will aid in obtaining that information. The Differential Diagnosis Decision Tree may be helpful to guide this process. Present DSM-5 and ICD-10 codes, including relevant V and Z codes. Provide a descriptive rationale for the DSM diagnosis that best fits the information provided including relevant ICD codes. This should be written in a narrative form using complete sentences. Support your rationale with scholarly sources. Optional readings found in the course syllabus may be particularly relevant. Determine if a medication consultation is appropriate and provide a rationale with support from scholarly sources. LIST OF ASSESSMENT TOOLS AND SUPPORTING RESOURCES Beck, A. T., Epstein, N., Brown, G., & Steer, R. (1988). Beck Anxiety Inventory. Psyctests , doi:10.1037/t02025-000 Bardhoshi, G., Duncan, K., & Erford, B. T. (2016). Psychometric meta‐analysis of the English version of the Beck Anxiety Inventory. Journal of Counseling & Development, 94 (3), 356–373. Review this source to review how to interpret the Beck Anxiety Inventory. Derogatis, L. R. (1977). Symptom checklist-90–revised. Psyctests , doi:10.1037/t01210-000 Grande, T. L., Newmeyer, M. D., Underwood, L. A., & Williams, C. R. (2014). Path analysis of the SCL-90-R: Exploring use in outpatient assessment. Measurement and Evaluation in Counseling and Development, 47 (4), 271–290. Review this source to review how to interpret the SCL-90-R. Prevatt, F., Dehili, V., Taylor, N., & Marshall, D. (2015). Anxiety Symptom Checklist. Psyctests , doi:10.1037/t39906-000 Beck Depression Inventory–II Erford, B. T., Johnson, E., & Bardoshi, G. (2016). Meta-analysis of the English version of the Beck Depression Inventory–Second edition. Measurement and Evaluation in Counseling and Development, 49 (1), 3–33. This resource will help you use the Beck Depression Inventory-II if you access that assessment tool. SUBMISSION REQUIREMENTS Written communication: Written communication must be grammatically correct and free of errors that detract from the overall message. Writing should be consistent with graduate level scholarship. APA formatting: Title page, main body, and references should be formatted according to the current APA style and formatting. Number of resources: Minimum of six scholarly resources. Distinguished submissions typically exceed this minimum. Length of paper: 5–7 typed double-spaced pages. Abstract and Table of Content pages are not necessary. Font: Times New Roman, 12 point.

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2025 NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3 Question 1 In an outpatient setting what is

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3 2025

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3 Question 1: In an outpatient setting, what is the most common reason for a malpractice suit? a. Failure to treat a condition b. Failure to diagnose correctly c. Ordering the wrong medication d. Failure to manage care Question 2: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes? a. Once a year b. Every 6 months c. Every 3 months d. Every visit Question 3: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis? a. Cholinesterase inhibitors b. Anxiolytics c. Antidepressants d. Atypical antipsychotics Question 4: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas? a. Metranidazole b. Ceftriaxone c. Diflucan d. Doxycycline Question 5: Most adult poisonings are: a. intentional and self-inflicted. b. accidental. c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person. d. not attributed to any reason. Question 6: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate? a. “It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.” b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.” c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.” d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.” Question 7: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)? a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) b. Computed tomography (CT) scan c. A lumbar puncture d. There is no specific test. Question 8: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient? a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan c. Send her for acupuncture treatments d. All of the above Question 9: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia? a. Abrupt onset b. Impaired attention c. Affective changes d. Delusions Question 10: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? a. Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC) b. Headache c. Nausea d. Widening pulse pressure Question 11: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation? a. Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations. b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses. c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury. d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice. Question 12: In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents? a. Commitment b. Consensus c. Certification d. Collaboration Question 13: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain? a. Decreased C-reactive protein b. Hyperalbuminemia c. Morning stiffness d. Weight gain Question 14: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam? a. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side. b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first. c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain. d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient. Question 15: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient? a. Overweight b. Mild obesity c. Moderate obesity d. Morbid obesity Question 16: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient? a. Elevated uric acid level b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) c. Decreased urine pH d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP) Question 17: Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome? a. The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist. b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position. c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection. d. All of the above Question 18: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods? a. Rice b. Carrots c. Spinach d. Potatoes Question 19: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam? a. Human papillomavirus (HPV) b. Endometrial hyperplasia c. Vagismus d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome Question 20: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache? a. A female in her reproductive years b. A 40-year-old African American male c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night Question 21: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation? a. 4 b. 8 d c. 10 d. 15 Question 22: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium? a. Benzodiazepines b. Antipsychotics c. Anticonvulsants d. Antidepressants Question 23: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer? a. Radical orchidectomy b. Lumpectomy c. Radiation implants d. All of the above Question 24: Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him: a. “L-dopa is neuroprotective.” b. “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.” c. “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.” d. “This is the initial monotherapy drug.” Question 25: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find? a. The scrotum will be dark. b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow. c. The scrotum will appear milky white. d. The internal structures will be clearly visible. Question 26: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to? a. Gonorrhea b. Human papillomavirus (HPV) c. Chlamydia d. Trichomonas Question 27: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral Question 28: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are? a. Spores b. Leukocytes c. Pseudohyphae d. Epithelial cells Question 29: A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses? a. Testicular cancer b. Inguinal hernia c. Varicocele d. All of the above Question 30: The clinician should Question: the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor? a. Low-dose aspirin b. Thiazide diuretics c. Ethambutol d. All of the above Question 31: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster? a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body c. A pain that is worse upon awakening d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal Question 32: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination? a. Autonomy b. Beneficence c. Justice d. Veracity Question 33: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point? a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 50% Question 34: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear? a. Valgus stress test b. McMurray circumduction test c. Lachman test d. Varus stress test Question 35: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease? a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) b. Elevated T4 c. Elevated TRH d. All of the above Question 36: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries? a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen) b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) c. Silver nitrate d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) Question 37: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious? a. An enlarged rubbery gland b. A hard irregular gland c. A tender gland d. A boggy gland Question 38: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? a. Gastrocnemius weakness b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex c. Numbness in the lateral foot d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks Question 39: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least: a. 1 month. b. 3 months. c. 6 months. d. 12 months. Question 40: The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain? a. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage. b. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication. c. You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain. d. It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption. Question 41: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease? a. Sinus bradycardia b. Atrial fibrillation c. Supraventricular tachycardia d. U waves Question 42: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc? a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue Question 43: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact? a. Superficial burns b. Superficial partial-thickness burns c. Deep partial-thickness burns d. Full-thickness burns Question 44: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary Question 45: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur? a. Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part. b. The area will be super sensitive. c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite. d. The area is as susceptible as any other area. Question 46: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints? a. Osteoarthritis b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) d. Sjogren’s syndrome Question 47: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority? a. Pregnancy test b. Pelvic ultrasound . c. Endometrial biopsy d. Platelet count Question 48: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding? a. Trichomonas b. Bacterial vaginosis c. Human papillomavirus (HPV) d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) Question 49: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines? a. Propranolol b. Timolol c. Ergotamine d. Topiramate Question 50: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment? a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Capsacin cream c. Vitamin B12 injections d. Insulin

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