Maladaptive responses to disorders are compensatory mechanisms that ultimately have adverse health effects for patients. For instance, a patient’s allergic reaction to peanuts might lead to anaphylactic shock, or a patient struggling with depression might develop a substance abuse problem. To properly diagnose and treat patients, advanced practice nurses must understand both the pathophysiology of disorders and potential maladaptive responses that some disorders cause.

Consider immune disorders such as HIV, psoriasis, inflammatory bowel disease, and systemic lupus E. What are resulting maladaptive responses for patients with these disorders?

To Prepare

· Review Chapter 6 and Chapter 8 in the Huether and McCance text. Reflect on the concept of maladaptive responses to disorders.

· Select two of the following immune disorders: HIV, psoriasis, inflammatory bowel disease, or systemic lupus E (SLE).

· Identify the pathophysiology of each disorder you selected. Consider the compensatory mechanisms that the disorders trigger. Then compare the resulting maladaptive and physiological responses of the two disorders.

· Select one of the following factors: genetics, gender, ethnicity, age, or behavior. Reflect on how the factor might impact your selected immune disorders.

Post a brief description of the pathophysiology of your selected immune disorders. Explain how the maladaptive and physiological responses of the two disorders differ. Finally, explain how the factor you selected might impact the pathophysiology of each disorder.

Pick whichever one is easiest for you

Janet Moriasi  
1 posts
Re: Topic 9 DQ 2
Insufficient Active Change Leadership:My EBP project include creation of space for a new unit thus financially involving. Sponsorship is the single most important factor in implementation success! But remember, project Sponsors must do more than sign a check authorizing funding for an initiative and show up at the project launch meeting. They must authorize, legitimize and demonstrate ownership throughout the lifecycle of the project. This is the only way the project can be sustainable. It is critical for Sponsors to be consistently expressing, modeling, and reinforcing their personal and collective commitment to the change. This includes Executive leaders down through the middle layers of your organization. It is the cascade of commitment that we are seeking as Change Agents.Poor Communications: There is a common belief that just getting a message out to an audience is enough to get buy-in, eliminate resistance and even drive behavior change. As a result, too many organizations singularly invest in top-down, one-way communications that don’t motivate people to move from the status quo to the desired state.
A change management communication plan is not at all the same thing as a change implementation plan. Centering efforts on communicating the right message, to the right audience, using the right vehicles, and always includes a feedback loop to gather reactions to both content and process. Sending the same message to everyone will not be sufficient. Keeping communication open throughout the project is also very important.ReferenceImplementing an Evidence-Based Practice Change by Gallagher-Ford, Fineout-Overholt, Melnyk, and Stillwell, from American Journal of Nursing (2011).https://lopes.idm.oclc.org/login?url=http://gateway.ovid.com.lopes.idm.oclc.org/ovidweb.cgi?T=JS&CSC=Y&NEWS=N&PAGE=fulltext&AN=00000446-201103000-00031&LSLINK=80&D=ovft

  Substantive Post  Yes  |   No

Your comments will be graded on how well they meet the Discussion Requirements posted under “Before You Begin.”

Make sure to review the E-learning course – Introduction to public health surveillance presentation.

1. The Introduction to public health surveillance presentation identified 7 uses of public health surveillance. Identify two uses that relate to epidemiology of diseases.
2. Discuss descriptive epidemiology aspect of disease surveillance.
3. Discuss the three main observational study designs, if you are to conduct an observational study of a population grouped into smokers and non-smokers. Which of the three main study designs would you use and why? Please provide in-text citation(s) to support your point of view.

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. (2014). E-learning course – Introduction to public health surveillance. Accessed from https://www.cdc.gov/publichealth101/documents/introduction-to-surveillance.pdf

  

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 2

Question 1: Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?

2 weeks

1 month

3 months

6 months

Question 2: CPT coding offers the uniformed language used for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physician and nonphysician practitioners. Clinicians are paid based on calculated resource costs that are calculated based on practice components.

a. Clinician education loans
b. Clinician practice liability and malpractice expense
c. Clinician reported cost reduction efforts
d. Clinician volume of patients treated

Question 3: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression.
Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 4: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral

Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?

a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.

Question 6: Most adult poisonings are:

a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.

Question 7: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?

a. The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?What is the normal number for the Glascow Coma Scale?

a. 7

b. 9

c. 10
d. 15

Question 9: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?

a. Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)

Question 10: Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm?

a. Dilute povidone-iodine solution
b. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
c. Saline solution infused with an antibiotic
d. Saline irrigation or soapy water

Question 11: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?

a. Autonomy

b. Beneficence

c. Justice
d. Veracity

Question 12: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

a. An enlarged rubbery gland

b. A hard irregular gland

c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland

Question 13: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?

a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit

Question 14: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas? (Points: 2)

a. Metranidazole

b. Ceftriaxone

c. Diflucan
d. Doxycycline

Question 15: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention? (Points: 2)

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 16: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

a. Radical orchidectomy

b. Lumpectomy

c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above

Question 17: George, aged 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia after returning from visiting his grandchildren in New England. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?

a. A viral syndromes
b. Lyme disease
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. Relapsing fever

Question 18: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas

Question 19: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?

a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body
b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal

Question 20: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

Question 21: Which of the following is a role of the advanced practice nurse in palliative cancer care?

a. Detecting cancer in asymptomatic patients or those with specific symptoms
b. Arranging for follow-up care, including psychosocial and spiritual support
c. Identifying and managing complications of care
d. All of the above

Question 22: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?

a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns

Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.

Question 24: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?

a. Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome

Question 25: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?

a. 4

b. 8

c. 10
d. 15

Question 26: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

a. No activity at all.
b. A blank stare.
c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily.
d. The attack usually lasts several minutes.

Question 27: The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?

a. Acetylcholine
b. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
c. Dopamine
d. Serotonin

Question 28: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?

a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions

Question 29: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?

a. Pregnancy test

b. Pelvic ultrasound

c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count

Question 30: The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?

a. Low-dose aspirin

b. Thiazide diuretics

c. Ethambutol
d. All of the above

Question 31: A bulla is:

a. A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter.
b. An elevated solid mass with a hard texture, and the shape and borders can be regular or irregular.
c. A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid.
d. Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent.

Question 32: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination.
As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 33: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?

a. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.

Question 34: The current goal of treatment for a patient with HIV infection is which of the following?

a. Viral suppression of HIV to undetectable levels in the peripheral blood
b. Compete eradication of the virus
c. Encouraging the person to have no contact with uninfected individuals
d. Complete abstinence

Question 35: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants

Question 36: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?

a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above

Question 37: Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of the client with a herniated disc?

a. Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate pain but should be discontinued after 3 weeks of use.
b. An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred.
c. Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical intervention.
d. All of the above

Question 38: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

a. A female in her reproductive years
b. A 40-year-old African American male
c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night

Question 39: The main mechanism for avoiding a lawsuit involves:

a. Good liability insurance
b. A collaborating physician
c. Good documentation
d. Open communication skills

Question 40: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?

a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Question 41: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?

a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Elevated T4
c. Elevated TRH
d. All of the above

Question 42: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?

a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 43: When may confidentiality be overridden?  

a. When personal information is available on the computer
b. When a clinician needs to share information with a billing company
c. When an insurance company wants to know the results of a breast cancer gene test
d. When a patient has a communicable disease

Question 44: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

a. Sinus bradycardia

b. Atrial fibrillation

c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves

Question 45: The most cost-effective screening test to determine HIV status is which of the following?

a. Western Blot
b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
c. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test
d. Viral load

Question 46: After 6 months of synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?

a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Normal TSH
c. Low TSH
d. Undetectable TSH

Question 47: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

a. Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes

Question 48: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?

a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin

Question 49 : In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?

a. Commitment

b. Consensus

c. Certification
d. Collaboration

Question 50: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

a. Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain