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Nursing Finances – 2025 Throughout this course you ve examined the importance of anticipating financial fluctuations that
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Nursing Finances – 2025
Throughout this course, you’ve examined the importance of anticipating financial fluctuations that may impact your organization’s ability to provide services. While financial managers have no time machines or crystal balls, they do have expense forecasts. Expense forecasting is one of the preeminent tools that financial managers can use to prepare their organizations for future fiscal turbulence. In this Assignment, you will examine a scenario and generate a corresponding expense forecast in Excel.
Before pursuing an opportunity or making a major purchase, financial decision makers must first ascertain if the expenditures are justified. Determining whether a new process, system, or purchase will yield worthwhile returns is no easy task. However, managers have a variety of tools to help them decide whether the new expenditure is warranted. Analyzing a venture’s benefit/cost ratio, marginal profit and loss statement, and break-even points enable nurse managers to make educated decisions about how they choose to commit their funds.
Expense Forecasting
In this Application Assignment you calculate scenarios focusing on benefit/cost ratio analysis, marginal profit and loss statements, and break-even analysis. For these scenarios, you will utilize the provided figures to perform calculations and then make recommendations about the viability of the investment opportunities
Expense Forecasting Scenario
Your department has performed 20,000 procedures during the first six months (January–June) of 20X1. Spending during that period of time was $210,000 for fixed expense items and $1,200,000 for variable expense items. Of those amounts, $50,000 of fixed expense money was spent on preparing for a Joint Commission survey. Volume is anticipated to be 10% higher in the second half of the year. On November 1st, two new procedure technicians will begin work. The salary and fringe benefit costs for each are $96,000/year. Based on the information provided, prepare an expense forecast for 20X1.
Annualization for Fixed: (Adjusted Total for Year to Date Expense/6) * 12 =Total Annualized Amounts
Annualization for Variable (Adjusted Total for Year to Date Expense/ 20,000) * 40,000 =Total Annualized Amounts.
Financial Analysis Cycle
Marginal Profit and Loss Statement Scenario
You are examining a proposal for a new business opportunity – a new procedure for which demand is expected to be 1,400 units the first year, growing by 600 units a year thereafter. The price charged per procedure is $1,000. The collection rate is anticipated to be 80%. Each procedure consumes $300 of supplies. Salary cost is estimated to cost $540,000 each year, fringe benefits are 25% of salaries, rent for the facility is $55,000/yr and operating cost are $120,000/yr.
Questions:
Break-Even Analysis Scenario
You can charge $1,075 for a new service. Demand is anticipated to be 8,000 units a year. Your business is able to handle up to 16,500 units annually, so capacity should not be a problem. The average collection rate is 80%. The new service has annual fixed costs of $4,700,000. Variable cost per unit of service is $420.
Question: Use break-even analysis to determine if this new service is financially viable. If the business is not financially viable, what steps could you take to make a case to proceed with implementation? Explain your decision.
Benefit/Cost Ratio Analysis Scenario
You are considering the acquisition of a new piece of equipment with a useful life of five years. This new technology will make your clinical operation more efficient and allow for a reduction of 10 FTEs. The equipment purchase price is $4,500,000 plus 10% installation fee. The purchase price includes service for the first year, an item that has an annual cost of $10,000. There is a potential for additional volume of 150,000 units in the first year, growing by 30,000 each year thereafter. The price charged per unit is $15.00 with a 50% collection rate. The staff being eliminated are paid $12.50 per hour. The fringe benefits rate is 20%. The hurdle rate is 7.5%.
Questions: After reviewing Dr. Ward’s Video and the calculations below, please answer the following questions:
References:
Assgn-WK6(G) – 2025 Applying Current Literature to Clinical Practice Psychiatric mental health nursing practice is
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Assgn-WK6(G) – 2025
Applying Current Literature to Clinical Practice
Psychiatric mental health nursing practice is one of the newest disciplines to be licensed to provide psychotherapy As such, the majority of psychotherapy research is centered on other disciplines such as psychology, social work, marriage/family therapy, art therapy, psychiatry, and mental health counseling. This makes it essential for you to be able to translate current literature from other disciplines into your own clinical practice. For this Assignment, you practice this skill by examining literature on group work and group therapy and considering its applicability to your own clients.
Learning Objectives
Students will:
· Evaluate the application of current literature to clinical practice
To prepare:
· Review this week’s Learning Resources and reflect on the insights they provide
on group work and group therapy.
· Select one of the articles from the Learning Resources to evaluate for this
assignment.
Note: In nursing practice, it is not uncommon to review current literature and share findings with your colleagues. Approach this Assignment as though you were presenting the information to your colleagues.
Assignment
In a 5- to 10-slide PowerPoint presentation, address the following:
o Provide an overview of the article you selected, including answers to the
following questions:
o What type of group was discussed?
o Who were the participants in the group? Why were they selected?
o What was the setting of the group?
o How often did the group meet?
o What was the duration of the group therapy?
o What curative factors might be important for this group and why?
o What “exclusion criteria” did the authors mention?
o Explain the findings/outcomes of the study in the article. Include whether this
will translate into practice with your own client groups. If so, how? If not, why?
o Explain whether the limitations of the study might impact your ability to use the
findings/outcomes presented in the article.
Note: The presentation should be 5–10 slides, not including the title and reference slides. Include presenter notes (no more than a half page per slide) and use tables and/or diagrams where appropriate. Be sure to support your work with specific citations from the article you selected. Support your presentation with evidence-based literature.
Learning Resources
Required Readings
Wheeler, K. (Ed.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice. New York, NY: Springer.
Yalom, I. D., & Leszcz, M. (2005). The theory and practice of group psychotherapy (5th ed.). New York, NY: Basic Books.
Chapter 1, “The Therapeutic Factors” (pp. 1–18)
Yalom, I. D., & Leszcz, M. (2005). The theory and practice of group psychotherapy (5th ed.). New York, NY: Basic Books.
Chapter 2, “Interpersonal Learning” (pp. 19–52)
Yalom, I. D., & Leszcz, M. (2005). The theory and practice of group psychotherapy (5th ed.). New York, NY: Basic Books.
Chapter 3, “Group Cohesiveness” (pp. 53–76)
Leszcz, M., & Kobos, J. C. (2008). Evidence-based group psychotherapy: Using AGPA’s practice guidelines to enhance clinical effectiveness. Journal of Clinical Psychology, 64(11), 1238–1260. doi:10.1002/jclp.20531
Marmarosh, C. L. (2014). Empirical research on attachment in group psychotherapy: Moving the field forward. Psychotherapy, 51(1), 88–92. doi:10.1037/a0032523
Microsoft. (2017). Basic tasks for creating a PowerPoint presentation. Retrieved from https://support.office.com/en-us/article/Basic-tasks-for-creating-a-PowerPoint-2013-presentation-efbbc1cd-c5f1-4264-b48e-c8a7b0334e36
Tasca, G. A. (2014). Attachment and group psychotherapy: Introduction to a special section. Psychotherapy, 51(1), 53–56. doi:10.1037/a0033015.
Tasca, G. A., Francis, K., & Balfour, L. (2014). Group psychotherapy levels of interventions: A clinical process commentary. Psychotherapy, 51(1), 25–29. doi:10.1037/a0032520
You will select one of the following articles on group therapy to evaluate for this week’s Assignment.
Bélanger, C., Laporte, L., Sabourin, S., & Wright, J. (2015). The effect of cognitive-behavioral group marital therapy on marital happiness and problem solving self-appraisal. American Journal of Family Therapy, 43(2), 103–118. doi:10.1080/01926187.2014.956614
Himelhoch, S., Medoff, D., & Oyeniyi, G. (2007). Efficacy of group psychotherapy to reduce depressive symptoms among HIV-infected individuals: A systematic review and meta-analysis. AIDS Patient Care & Stds, 21(10), 732–739. doi:10.1089/apc.2007.0012
Pessagno, R. A., & Hunker, D. (2013). Using short-term group psychotherapy as an evidence-based intervention for first-time mothers at risk for postpartum depression. Perspectives in Psychiatric Care, 49(3), 202–209. doi:10.1111/j.1744-6163.2012.00350.x
Sayın, A., Candansayar, S., & Welkin, L. (2013). Group psychotherapy in women with a history of sexual abuse: What did they find helpful? Journal of Clinical Nursing, 22(23/24), 3249–3258. doi:10.1111/jocn.12168
Yildiran, H., & Holt, R. R. (2015). Thematic analysis of the effectiveness of an inpatient mindfulness group for adults with intellectual disabilities. British Journal of Learning Disabilities, 43(1), 49–54. doi:10.1111/bld.12085
Nursing Theory – 2025 Callista Roy and Betty Neuman s theories view the person individual group or community as a holistic adaptive system that
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Nursing Theory – 2025
Callista Roy and Betty Neuman’s theories view the person (individual, group, or community) as a holistic adaptive system that constantly interacts with the internal and external environments. Both theories view the person as being the center of nursing and present health/wellness and illness as parts of the same continuum, however there are some key assumptions that are different. As such, select one of the theories and identify 1 assumption of the theory and discuss how the care rendered for this patient by an advanced practice nurse would be structured (assessment, diagnosis, planning, intervention, evaluation) according to the theory. Give 2 specific examples of interventions that you anticipate will be included in the patient’s care.
Mr. Reynolds is a 32 year-old male patient hospitalized on the orthopedic unit of the hospital. He is status-post motorcycle accident and right leg below the knee amputation. He has a history of Depression and Schizophrenia. He is currently separated from his wife and estranged from his family. He is awaiting social work for placement in a rehabilitation facility, where he will continue his recovery.
I need at least 2 references
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 1 – 2025 NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 1 Question 1 Which of
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NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 1 – 2025
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 1
Question 1: Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline?
a. Creating a physician expert panel
b. Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence
c. Conducting an external review of a guideline
d. Developing evidence-based tables
Question 2: African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?
a. Inhaled corticosteroids
b. Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators
c. Leukotriene receptor agonist
d. Oral corticosteroid
Question 3: Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?
a. The tumor size cannot be evaluated, the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes, and the distant spread cannot be evaluated.
b. The cancer is in situ, it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread otherwise cannot be evaluated.
c. The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.
d. The cancer is about 5 cm in size, nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated, and there is no evidence of distant spreading.
Question 4: Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?
a. Meclizine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Diamox
d. Promethazine
Question 5: Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart that is in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
a. Filiform/digitate wart.
b. Dysplastic cervical lesion.
c. Condyloma accuminata.
d. Koilocytosis.
Question 6: Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?
a. Dementia
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Delirium
Question 7: You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?
a. “Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”
b. “Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”
c. “Drive to the emergency room (ER) now.”
d. “Call 911.”
Question 8: A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?
a. NSAIDs
b. Beets
c. Vitamin A
d. Red meat
Question 9: Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?
a. Fluid restriction
b. Hemodialysis 4 days a week
c. High-protein diet
d. Maintain blood pressure at 120/80
Question 10: Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?
a. Glaucoma
b. Increased sperm quality
c. Bladder cancer
d. Eczema
Question 11: A chronic cough lasts longer than:
a. 3 weeks
b. 1 month
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
Question 12: The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?
a.Parkinson’s disease
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. A CVA
d. Bell’s palsy
Question 13: When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?
a. Tension
b. Migraine
c. Cluster
d. Stress
Question 14: Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?
a. African American men
b. Scandinavian men and women
c. Caucasian women
d. Asian men
Question 15: The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:
a. Pharyngitis
b. Allergies
c. Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)
d. Perforation of the eardrum
Question 16: Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:
a. Severe asthma.
b. A common valvular lesion.
c. Severe hypertension.
d. A previous coronary artery bypass graft (CABG).
Question 17: A 34-year-old patient was treated for a urinary tract infection (UTI) and has not responded to antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should be taken next?
a. Send a urine specimen for microscopy looking for fungal colonies.
b. Increase the dose of antibiotic.
c. Order a cytoscopy.
d. Order a different antibiotic.
Question 18: Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?
a. It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
b. A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
c. A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
d. The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.
Question 19: Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the ‘mask of pregnancy’?
a. It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone duringpregnancy.
b. This condition only occurs on the face.
c. Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration.
d. It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.
Question 20: Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
a. “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
b. “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
c. “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
d. “We’ll have to do some tests.”
Question 21: A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:
a. Stage 2 hypertension
b. Hypertensive
c. Normal in healthy older adults
d. Acceptable if the patient has DM
Question 22: When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, theclinician should stress that the tablets should remain in thelight-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and shouldnot be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are orcould become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottlemust be dated and discarded after how many months?
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever
Question 23: Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?
a. He should stop smoking today.
b. He should stop smoking tomorrow.
c. His quit date should be in 1 week.
d. He will be ready to quit after the Frst 30 days
Question 24: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
a. Spores
c. Pseudohyphae
b. Leukocytes
d. Epithelial cells
Question 25: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
a. No activity at all.
b. A blank stare.
c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily.
d. The attack usually lasts several minutes.
Question 26: Which medication used for scabies is safe for children 2 months and older?
a. Permethrin cream
b. Lindane
c. Crotamiton lotion and cream
d. Ivermectin
Question 27: The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis?
a. Viral conjunctivitis
b. Keratoconjunctivitis
c. Bacterial conjunctivitis
d. Allergic conjunctivitis
Question 28: Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?
a. “Most patients have complete recovery in a few weeks to a few months.”
b. “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
c. “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
d. “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”
Question 29: How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures and the drug level is adequate
a. Every 3 months
b. Every 6 months
c. Annually
d. Whenever there is a problem
Question 30: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
Question 31: The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?
a. Repeat the test.
b. Refer to a nephrologist.
c. Measure the serum protein.
d. Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Question 32: Which cranial nerve is afected in a patient with acerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?
a. CN V
b. CN VII
c. CN IX
d. CN X
Question 33: Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered for a patient suspected of having bladder cancer?
a. KUB (kidneys, ureter, bladder) x-ray
b. Cystoscopy with biopsy
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Urine tumor marker (NMP22)
Question 34: The “B” in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents:
a. Biopsy.
b. Best practice.
c. Boundary.
d. Border irregularity.
Question 35: Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?
a. Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients mustnever drive again.
b. After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
c. Each state has diferent laws governing driving forindividuals with a seizure disorder.
d. These persons may drive but never alone.
Question 36: Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?
a. Greater than 30
b. Greater than 40
c. Greater than 50
d. Greater than 60
Question 37: The most common etiologic organism for community-acquired pneumonia is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Beta hemolytic streptococcus
C. Mycoplasma
D. Methicillin resistant staphylococcus
Question 38: Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?
a. Serum calcium
b. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
d. Complete blood cell count
Question 39: A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?
a. The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
b. Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
c. A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
d. The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.
Question 40: Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?
a. Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
b. Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
c. If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
d. All of the above
Question 41: Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of chronic renal failure (CRF)?
a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
b. Electrolytes
c. Creatinine clearance
d. Urinalysis
Question 42: Marci has a wart on her hand. She says she heard something about “silver duct tape therapy.” What do you tell her about his?
a. It is an old wives’ tale.
b. It is used as a last resort.
c. Salicylic acid is more effective.
d. It is a simple treatment that should be tried first.
Question 43: What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A b-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?
a. Penicillin
b. Quinolone
c. Cephalosporin
d. Macrolide
Question 44: Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?
a. Perforation of the tympanic membrane
b. Otosclerosis
c. Cholesteatoma
d. Presbycusis
Question 45: Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”
a. An ulcer
b. A fissure
c. Lichenification
d. An excoriation
Question 46: A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night visio0n, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?
a. The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
b. The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
c. Physical diagnosis relies on goniscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
d. Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.
Question 47: The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM
Question 48: A patient is seen with a sudden onset of ±ank painaccompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. Inaddition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should beadded to the list of diferential diagnoses?
a. Pancreatitis
b. Peptic ulcer disease
c. Diverticulitis
d. All of the above
Question 49: Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?
a. B-type natriuretic peptide
b. C-reactive protein
c. Serum albumin
d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Question 50: You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?
a. Baker phenomenon
b. Arnold reflex
c. cough reflex
d. Tragus reflex