Epidemiology: Decoding the Science of Public Health (PUBH – 6035 – 2) Module 1 Quiz 2025

Question 1 Epidemiology involves studying infectious communicable disease, not events like injury, obesity, mental health disorders, and seat belt use. [removed]True [removed]False 1.6 points Question 2 The Framingham study was a: [removed] a. Retrospective cohort study. [removed] b. Case-control study. [removed] c. Cross-sectional study. [removed] d. Prospective cohort study. 1.7 points Question 3 Epidemiology includes the study of: [removed] a. Human behavior [removed] b. Accidents [removed] c. Disease [removed] d. All of the above [removed] e. None of the above 1.7 points Question 4 The definition of epidemiology involves all of the following EXCEPT: [removed] a. Identification of determinants [removed] b. Measuring the distribution of disease [removed] c. Individuals [removed] d. Application [removed] e. The definition includes all of the above 1.7 points Question 5 Who evaluated the Bills of Mortality? [removed] a. William Farr [removed] b. John Graunt [removed] c. Hippocrates [removed] d. George Soper 1.7 points Question 6 Who helped to establish the germ theory of disease? [removed] a. James Lind [removed] b. John Snow [removed] c. Louis Pasteur [removed] d. Florence Nightingale 1.7 points Question 7 Who showed that poor diet could result in scurvy? [removed] a. James Lind [removed] b. John Snow [removed] c. Louis Pasteur [removed] d. Florence Nightingale 1.7 points Question 8 The web of causation includes host and environmental determinants. [removed]True [removed]False 1.6 points Question 9 A cause of disease is an event, condition, or characteristic that preceded the disease and without which the disease would either not have occurred or would have occurred later. [removed]True [removed]False 1.6 points Question 10 Which sequence below represents the chronological evolution of disease causation approaches in epidemiology (from oldest to newest)? [removed] a. Web of causation -> Germ theory -> Body humor imbalance-> Ecosocial framework [removed] b. Germ theory -> Body humor imbalance -> Ecosocial framework -> Web of causation [removed] c. Body humor imbalance -> Germ theory -> Web of causation -> Ecosocial framework [removed] d. Body humor imbalance -> Web of causation -> Ecosocial framework -> Germ theory 1.7 points Question 11 Which of the following are essential attributes of causes (choose all that apply)? [removed] a. Time order [removed] b. Environmental factors [removed] c. Association [removed] d. Direction 1.7 points Question 12 How much of the increase in U.S. life expectancy since the 20th century can be attributed to public health improvements? [removed] a. 25% [removed] b. 57% [removed] c. 83% [removed] d. 75% 1.7 points Question 13 The purpose of disease surveillance is to monitor aspects of dsease occurrence that are pertinent to effective control. [removed]True [removed]False 1.6 points Question 14 John Snow used mortality data developed by William Farr to test a hypothesis that cholera was spread by contaminated water. [removed]True [removed]False 1.6 points Question 15 Which of the following innovations did The Streptomycin Tuberulosis Trial employ (choose all that apply)? [removed] a. Consideration of the ethical issues involved [removed] b. Randomization to treatment and control groups [removed] c. Masking the investigators [removed] d. Restrictions on eligibility of patients

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NR 511 Week 4 Midterm (Exam Version 3) 2025

Question 1: In an outpatient setting, what is the most common reason for a malpractice suit? a. Failure to treat a condition b. Failure to diagnose correctly c. Ordering the wrong medication d. Failure to manage care Question 2: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes? a. Once a year b. Every 6 months c. Every 3 months d. Every visit Question 3: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis? a. Cholinesterase inhibitors b. Anxiolytics c. Antidepressants d. Atypical antipsychotics Question 4: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas? a. Metranidazole b. Ceftriaxone c. Diflucan d. Doxycycline Question 5: Most adult poisonings are: a. intentional and self-inflicted. b. accidental. c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person. d. not attributed to any reason. Question 6: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate? a. “It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.” b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.” c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.” d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.” Question 7: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)? a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) b. Computed tomography (CT) scan c. A lumbar puncture d. There is no specific test. Question 8: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient? a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan c. Send her for acupuncture treatments d. All of the above Question 9: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia? a. Abrupt onset b. Impaired attention c. Affective changes d. Delusions Question 10: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? a. Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC) b. Headache c. Nausea d. Widening pulse pressure Question 11: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation? a. Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations. b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses. c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury. d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice. Question 12: In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents? a. Commitment b. Consensus c. Certification d. Collaboration Question 13: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain? a. Decreased C-reactive protein b. Hyperalbuminemia c. Morning stiffness d. Weight gain Question 14: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam? a. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side. b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first. c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain. d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient. Question 15: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient? a. Overweight b. Mild obesity c. Moderate obesity d. Morbid obesity Question 16: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient? a. Elevated uric acid level b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) c. Decreased urine pH d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP) Question 17: Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome? a. The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist. b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position. c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection. d. All of the above Question 18: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods? a. Rice b. Carrots c. Spinach d. Potatoes Question 19: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam? a. Human papillomavirus (HPV) b. Endometrial hyperplasia c. Vagismus d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome Question 20: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache? a. A female in her reproductive years b. A 40-year-old African American male c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night Question 21: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation? a. 4 b. 8 d c. 10 d. 15 Question 22: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium? a. Benzodiazepines b. Antipsychotics c. Anticonvulsants d. Antidepressants Question 23: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer? a. Radical orchidectomy b. Lumpectomy c. Radiation implants d. All of the above Question 24: Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him: a. “L-dopa is neuroprotective.” b. “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.” c. “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.” d. “This is the initial monotherapy drug.” Question 25: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find? a. The scrotum will be dark. b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow. c. The scrotum will appear milky white. d. The internal structures will be clearly visible. Question 26: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to? a. Gonorrhea b. Human papillomavirus (HPV) c. Chlamydia d. Trichomonas Question 27: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral Question 28: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are? a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral Question 29: A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses? a. Testicular cancer b. Inguinal hernia c. Varicocele d. All of the above Question 30: The clinician should Question: the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor? a. Low-dose aspirin b. Thiazide diuretics c. Ethambutol d. All of the above Question 31: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster? a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body c. A pain that is worse upon awakening d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal Question 32: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination? a. Autonomy b. Beneficence c. Justice d. Veracity Question 33: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point? a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 50% Question 34: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear? a. Valgus stress test b. McMurray circumduction test c. Lachman test d. Varus stress test Question 35: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease? a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) b. Elevated T4 c. Elevated TRH d. All of the above Question 36: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries? a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen) b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) c. Silver nitrate d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) Question 37: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious? a. An enlarged rubbery gland b. A hard irregular gland c. A tender gland d. A boggy gland Question 38: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? a. Gastrocnemius weakness b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex c. Numbness in the lateral foot d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks Question 39: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least: a. 1 month. b. 3 months. c. 6 months. d. 12 months. Question 40: The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain? a. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage. b. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication. c. You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain. d. It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption. Question 41: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease? a. Sinus bradycardia b. Atrial fibrillation c. Supraventricular tachycardia d. U waves Question 42: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc? a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue Question 43: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact? a. Superficial burns b. Superficial partial-thickness burns c. Deep partial-thickness burns d. Full-thickness burns Question 44: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary Question 45: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur? a. Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part. b. The area will be super sensitive. c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite. d. The area is as susceptible as any other area. Question 46: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints? a. Osteoarthritis b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) d. Sjogren’s syndrome Question 47: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority? a. Pregnancy test b. Pelvic ultrasound . c. Endometrial biopsy d. Platelet count Question 48: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding? a. Trichomonas b. Bacterial vaginosis c. Human papillomavirus (HPV) d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) Question 49: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines? a. Propranolol b. Timolol c. Ergotamine d. Topiramate Question 50: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment? a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Capsacin cream c. Vitamin B12 injections d. Insulin

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