FNU Physical Assessment in Health Care Quiz 

Question 1

Which of the following is a relatively benign condition that may occur during pregnancy or labor?

a. Macular degeneration

b. Papilledema

c. Subconjunctival hemorrhage

d. Cupping of the optic disc

Question 2

Which maneuver can be done to reduce the systemic absorption of cycloplegic and mydriatic agents when examining a pregnant woman if the examination is mandatory?

a. Have the woman keep her eyes closed for several minutes.

b. Instill half the usual dosage.

c. Keep the patient supine, with her head turned and flexed.

d. Use nasolacrimal occlusion after instillation

Question 3

When there is an imbalance found with the corneal light test, you should then perform the ___________ test.

a. confrontation

b. accommodation

c. cover–uncover

d. visual acuity

Question 4

White specks scattered in a linear pattern around the entire circumference of the iris are called:

a. drusen bodies.
b. cotton wool spots.
c. rust spots.
d. Brushfield spots.

Question 5

Which of the following may be suggestive of Down syndrome?

a. Drusen bodies
b. Papilledema
c. Narrow palpebral fissures
d. Prominent epicanthal folds

Question 6

You are attempting to examine the eyes of a newborn. To facilitate eye opening, you would first:

a. dim the room lights.
b. elicit pain.
c. place him in the supine position.
d. shine the penlight in his or her eyes.

Question 7

When testing corneal sensitivity controlled by cranial nerve V, you should expect the patient to respond by:

a. brisk blinking.
b. copious tearing.
c. pupil dilation.
d. reflex smiling.

Question 8

Xanthelasma may suggest that the patient has an abnormality of:

a. lipid metabolism.
b. cognitive function.
c. renal metabolism.
d. bone marrow function.

Question 9

You observe pupillary response as the patient looks at a distant object and then at an object held 10 cm from the bridge of the nose.You are assessing for:

a. confrontation reaction.
b. accommodation.
c. pupillary light reflex.
d. nystagmus.

Question 10

Which of the following findings, when seen in the infant, is ominous?

a. Difficulty tracking objects with the eyes
b. Appearing to have better peripheral than central vision
c. Blinking when bright light is directed at the face
d. White pupils on photographs

Question 11

When you ask the patient to identify smells, you are assessing cranial nerve __.

Ans: 1

Question 12

Which risk factor is associated with the highest rate of oral cancers?

a. Women

b. Being younger than 55 years

c. excessive caffeine use

d. Fanconi anemia

Question 13

You are interviewing a parent whose child has a fever, is pulling at her right ear, and is irritable. You ask the parent about the child’s appetite and find that the child has a decreased appetite. This additional finding is more suggestive of:

a. acute otitis media.

b. otitis externa.

c. serous otitis media.

d. middle ear effusion.

Question 14

Which of the following signs and symptoms occur with a sensorineural hearing loss? (Select all that apply.)

a. Air conduction shorter than bone conduction

b. Lateralization to the affected ear

c. Loss of high-frequency sounds

d. Speaks more loudly

e. Disorder of the inner ear

f. Air conduction longer than bone conduction

Question 15

Which variation may be an expected finding in the ear examination of a newborn?

a. Diffuse light reflex

b. Purulent material in the ear canal

c. Redness and swelling of the mastoid process

d. Small perforations of the tympanic membrane

Question 16

White, rounded, or oval ulcerations surrounded by a red halo and found on the oral mucosa are:

a. Fordyce spots.

b. aphthous ulcers.

c. Stensen ducts.

d. leukoedema.

Question 17

You are performing Weber and Rinne hearing tests. For the Weber test, the sound lateralized to the unaffected ear; for the Rinne test, air conduction–to–bone conduction ratio is less than 2:1. You interpret these findings as suggestive of:

a. a defect in the inner ear.

b. a defect in the middle ear.

c. otitis externa.

d. impacted cerumen.

Question 18

You are performing hearing screening tests. Who would be expected to find difficulty in hearing the highest frequencies?

a. 7

b. 12

c. 20

d. 40

e. 65

Question 19

Which abnormality is common during pregnancy?

a. Eruption of additional molars

b. Hypertrophy of the gums

c. Otitis externa

d. Otitis media

Question 20

You are using a pneumatic attachment on the otoscope while assessing tympanic membrane movement. You gently squeeze the bulb but see no movement of the membrane. Your next action should be to:

a. remove all cerumen from the canal.

b. make sure the speculum is sealed form outside air.

c. squeeze the bulb with more force.

d. insert the speculum to depth of 2 cm.

Question 21

Which of the following is an expected change in the assessment of the thyroid during pregnancy?

a. Palpation of the gland becomes difficult.

b. A bruit is auscultated.

c. Inspection reveals a goiter.

d. The gland is tender on palpation

Question 22

Which type of headache usually occurs at night, is precipitated by alcohol consumption, and occurs more often in men than in women?

a. Classic migraine
b. Temporal arteritis
c. Cluster
d. Hypertensive

Question 23

Which of the following is true regarding caput succedaneum?

a. It is a subperiosteal collection of blood.

b. It is firm and its edges are well defined.

c. It develops several days after delivery.

d. It is seen over the presenting part of thehead

Question 24

You are palpating a patient’s thyroid and find that its broadest dimension measures 4 cm. The right lobe is 25% larger than the left.These data would indicate:

a. a congenital anomaly.

b. a normal thyroid gland.

c. a multinodular goiter.

d. thyroiditis.

Question 25

Which of the following findings would be consistent with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)?

a. Corneal clouding

b. Eye slanting

c. Mild ptosis

d. Symmetric, bulging fontanels

Question 26

Which of the following is a chronic autoimmune disorder?

a. tenosynovitis

b. fibromyalgia

c. rhabdomyolysis

d. myasthenia gravis

Question 27

Which cranial nerves innervate the face?

a. II and V

b. III and VI

c. V and VII

d. VIII and IX

Question 28

You are examining Ms. L, age 78 years. You find a sunken appearance of her eyes, cheeks, and temporal areas. Her skin is dry, and her nose appears sharp. This description of Ms. L’s facies is associated with:

a. cutis laxa syndrome.

b. Hurler syndrome.

c. old age.

d. terminal illness.

Question 29

Which of the following is true regarding a cephalohematoma?

a. It is bound by suture lines.

b. The affected part feels soft.

c. It is obvious at birth.

d. The margins are poorly defined

Question 30

Which is the best way to position a patient’s neck for palpation of the thyroid?

a. Flexed away from the side being examined
b. Flexed directly forward
c. Flexed toward the side being examined
d. Hyperextended directly backward 

 

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper that evaluates the difference between leadership [i.e. directors, C-suite – Chief Executive Officer, Chief Operating Officer, etc.) and board governance [the Board of Directors] in establishing strategic planning for a health care organization.

Cite 3 reputable references to support your assignment (e.g., trade or industry publications, government or agency websites, scholarly works, or other sources of similar quality).

Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.