2025 Evidence Based Practice Proposal Section A Organizational Culture and Readiness Assessment and Section B Proposal Problem

Evidence-Based Practice Proposal 2025

Evidence-Based Practice Proposal –  Section A: Organizational Culture and Readiness Assessment and Section B:  Proposal/Problem Statement and Literature Review In order to formulate your evidence-based practice (EBP), you need to assess your organization. In this assignment, you will be responsible for setting the stage for EBP. This assignment is conducted in two parts: an organizational cultural and readiness assessment and the proposal/problem statement and literature review, which you completed in NUR-550. Section A: Organizational Culture and Readiness Assessment It is essential to understand the culture of the organization in order to begin assessing its readiness for EBP implementation. Select an appropriate organizational culture survey tool and use this instrument to assess the organization’s readiness. 1. Develop an analysis of 250 words from the results of the survey, addressing your organization’s readiness level, possible project barriers and facilitators, and how to integrate clinical inquiry, providing strategies that strengthen the organization’s weaker areas. 2. Make sure to include the rationale for the survey category scores that were significantly high and low, incorporating details or examples. Explain how to integrate clinical inquiry into the organization. 3. Submit a summary of your results. The actual survey results do not need to be included. Section B: Proposal/Problem Statement and Literature Review In NUR-550, you developed a PICOT statement and literature review for a population quality initiative. In 500-750 words, include the following: 1. Refine your PICOT into a proposal or problem statement. 2. Provide a summary of the research you conducted to support your PICOT, including subjects, methods, key findings, and limitations. General Guidelines: You are required to cite three to five sources to complete this assignment. Sources must be published within the last 5 years and appropriate for the assignment criteria and nursing content. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center. Note: After submitting the assignment, you will receive feedback from the instructor. Use this feedback to make revisions for your final paper submission. This will be a continuous process throughout the course for each section. Rubric Section A: Organizational Culture and Readiness Assessment A discussion of the readiness level or the organization, possible project barriers and facilitators, how to integrate clinical inquiry, and the rationale for survey categories is clearly provided and well developed. Section B: Proposal or Problem Statement A proposal or problem statement is clearly provided and well developed. Section B: Literature Review A summary of the research you conducted to support your PICOT, including subjects, methods, key findings, and limitations, is clearly provided and well developed. Required Sources Number of required sources is met. Sources are current, but not all sources are appropriate for the assignment criteria and nursing content.

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2025 Two week old Tabitha has infant respiratory distress syndrome Eighty year old Anthony has emphysema and 50 year old Jenny has pulmonary fibrosis

Pathophysiology DQ 9 reply Wendy trujillo 2025

Two-week-old Tabitha has infant respiratory distress syndrome. Eighty-year-old Anthony has emphysema, and 50-year-old Jenny has pulmonary fibrosis. a. Why are the mechanics of breathing greatly compromised in all these cases? Week Discussion Questions Abitha, a 2-week-old boy, has respiratory distress syndrome. Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is an issue which often happens in babies that are premature. The situation causes it to be difficult for the infant to breathe. Newborn RDS occurs in babies whose lungs aren’t yet completely developed. The breathing mechanism is seriously influenced in the RDS. Azure skin could additionally be noticed because of bad blood circulation, inadequate urine output or maybe decreased birth weight. Anthony, eighty, has emphysema. Emphysema is a condition which harms the alveoli and will harm the little airways in the lungs. This substantially cuts down on the capability of the airways and the sacs to expel the standard quantity of air out of the lungs. The ensuing state, likewise referred to as “air trapping,” stops air that is fresh from getting into to put out oxygen into the bloodstream. The effect is a sensation of shortness of breath. Jenny, fifty, has pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary fibrosis is actually a lung disease which happens healed as well as when lung tissue is harmed. This rigid and thick tissue causes it to be hard for the lungs to run right. As the pulmonary fibrosis of yours worsens, it gets a lot more breathless. Reference Grossman, S. C., & Porth, C. (2014). Porth’s pathophysiology: concepts of altered health states . Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health/Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. .

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2025 Develop a disaster recovery plan to lessen health disparities and improve access to community services after a

Assessment 3 Instructions: Disaster Recovery Plan 2025

Develop a disaster recovery plan to lessen health disparities and improve access to community services after a disaster. Then, develop and record an 8-10 slide presentation (PowerPoint preferred) of the plan with audio for the Vila Health system, city officials, and the disaster relief team. As you begin to prepare this assessment, you are encouraged to complete the Disaster Preparedness and Management activity. The information gained from completing this activity will help you succeed with the assessment as you think through key issues in disaster preparedness and management in the community or workplace. Completing activities is also a way to demonstrate engagement. Professional Context Nurses fulfill a variety of roles, and their diverse responsibilities as health care providers extend to the community. The decisions we make daily and in times of crisis often involve the balancing of human rights with medical necessities, equitable access to services, legal and ethical mandates, and financial constraints. When an unanticipated event occurs, such as an accident or natural disaster, issues can arise that complicate decisions about meeting the needs of an individual or group, including understanding and upholding their rights and desires, mediating conflict, and applying established ethical and legal standards of nursing care. As a nurse, you must be knowledgeable about disaster preparedness to safeguard those in your care. You are also accountable for promoting equitable quality of care for community residents. This assessment provides an opportunity for you to apply the concepts of emergency preparedness, public health assessment, triage, management, and surveillance after a disaster. You will also focus on hospital evacuation and extended displacement periods. Demonstration of Proficiency By successfully completing this assessment, you will demonstrate your proficiency in the following course competencies and assessment criteria: Competency 1: Analyze health risks and health care needs among distinct populations. Describe the determinants of health and the cultural, social, and economic barriers that impact safety, health, and disaster recovery efforts in a community. Competency 2: Propose health promotion strategies to improve the health of populations. Present specific, evidence-based strategies to overcome communication barriers and enhance interprofessional collaboration to improve disaster recovery efforts. Competency 3: Evaluate health policies, based on their ability to achieve desired outcomes. Explain how health and governmental policy affect disaster recovery efforts. Competency 4: Integrate principles of social justice in community health interventions. Explain how a proposed disaster recovery plan will lessen health disparities and improve access to community services. Competency 5: Apply professional, scholarly communication strategies to lead health promotion and improve population health. Present a compelling case to community stakeholders to obtain their approval and support for a proposed disaster recovery plan. Note: Complete the assessments in this course in the order in which they are presented. Preparation When disaster strikes, community members must be protected. A comprehensive recovery plan, guided by the MAP-IT (Mobilize, Assess, Plan, Implement, Track) framework, is essential to help ensure everyone’s safety. The unique needs of residents must be assessed to lessen health disparities and improve access to equitable services after a disaster. Recovery efforts depend on the appropriateness of the plan, the extent to which key stakeholders have been prepared, and the allocation of available resources. In a time of cost containment, when personnel and resources may be limited, the needs of residents must be weighed carefully against available resources. In this assessment, you are a member of a community task force responsible for developing a disaster recovery plan for the Vila Health community using MAP-IT, which you will present to city officials and the disaster relief team. To prepare for the assessment, complete the Vila Health: Disaster Recovery Scenario simulation. In addition, you are encouraged to complete the Disaster Preparedness and Management activity. The information gained from completing this activity will help you succeed with the assessment as you think through key issues in disaster preparedness and management in the community or workplace. Completing activities is also a way to demonstrate engagement. Begin thinking about: Community needs. Resources, personnel, budget, and community makeup. People accountable for implementation of the disaster recovery plan. Healthy People 2020 goals. A timeline for the recovery effort. You may also wish to: Review the MAP-IT (Mobilize, Assess, Plan, Implement, Track) framework, which you will use to guide the development of your plan: M obilize collaborative partners. A ssess community needs. P lan to lessen health disparities and improve access to services. I mplement a plan to reach Healthy People 2020 objectives. T rack community progress. Review the assessment instructions and scoring guide to ensure that you understand the work you will be asked to complete. Note: Remember that you can submit all, or a portion of, your draft recovery plan to Smarthinking Tutoring for feedback, before you submit the final version for this assessment. If you plan on using this free service, be mindful of the turnaround time of 24–48 hours for receiving feedback. Note: If you require the use of assistive technology or alternative communication methods to participate in this activity, please contact [email protected] to request accommodations. Instructions Complete the following: Develop a disaster recovery plan for the Vila Health community that will lessen health disparities and improve access to services after a disaster. Refer back to the Vila Health: Disaster Recovery Scenario to understand the Vila Health community. Assess community needs. Consider resources, personnel, budget, and community makeup. Identify the people accountable for implementation of the plan and describe their roles. Focus on specific Healthy People 2020 goals. Include a timeline for the recovery effort. Use the MAP-IT (Mobilize, Assess, Plan, Implement, Track) framework to guide the development of your plan: M obilize collaborative partners. A ssess community needs. P lan to lessen health disparities and improve access to services. I mplement a plan to reach Healthy People 2020 objectives. T rack community progress. Develop a slide presentation of your disaster recovery plan with an audio recording of you presenting your assessment of the Vila Health: Disaster Recovery Scenario for city officials and the disaster relief team. Presentation Format and Length You may use Microsoft PowerPoint (preferred) or other suitable presentation software to create your slides and add your voice-over. If you elect to use an application other than PowerPoint, check with your instructor to avoid potential file compatibility issues. Be sure that your slide deck includes the following slides: Title slide. Recovery plan title. Your name. Date. Course number and title. References (at the end of your presentation). Your slide deck should consist of 8–10 content slides plus title and references slides. Use the speaker’s notes section of each slide to develop your talking points and cite your sources as appropriate. The following resources will help you create and deliver an effective presentation: Record a Slide Show With Narration and Slide Timings . This Microsoft article provides steps for recording slide shows in different versions of PowerPoint, including steps for Windows, Mac, and online. Microsoft Office Software . This Campus page includes tip sheets and tutorials for Microsoft PowerPoint. PowerPoint Presentations Library Guide . This library guide provides links to PowerPoint and other presentation software resources. SoNHS Professional Presentation Guidelines [PPTX] . This presentation, designed especially for the School of Nursing and Health Sciences, offers valuable tips and links, and is itself a PowerPoint template that can be used to create a presentation. Supporting Evidence Cite at least three credible sources from peer-reviewed journals or professional industry publications to support your plan. Graded Requirements The requirements outlined below correspond to the grading criteria in the scoring guide, so be sure to address each point: Describe the determinants of health and the cultural, social, and economic barriers that impact safety, health, and recovery efforts in the community. Consider the interrelationships among these factors. Explain how your proposed disaster recovery plan will lessen health disparities and improve access to community services. Consider principles of social justice and cultural sensitivity with respect to ensuring health equity for individuals, families, and aggregates within the community. Explain how health and governmental policy impact disaster recovery efforts. Consider the implications for individuals, families, and aggregates within the community of legislation that includes, but is not limited to, the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, and the Disaster Recovery Reform Act (DRRA). Present specific, evidence-based strategies to overcome communication barriers and enhance interprofessional collaboration to improve the disaster recovery effort. Consider how your proposed strategies will affect members of the disaster relief team, individuals, families, and aggregates within the community. Include evidence to support your strategies. Present a compelling case to community stakeholders to obtain their approval and support for the proposed disaster recovery plan. Develop your presentation with a specific purpose and audience in mind. Adhere to scholarly and disciplinary writing standards and APA formatting requirements. Additional Requirements Before submitting your assessment, proofread all elements to minimize errors that could distract readers and make it difficult for them to focus on the substance of your presentation. Portfolio Prompt: Remember to save the assessment to your ePortfolio so that you may refer to it as you complete the final capstone course.

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2025 Identify at least one sociocultural factor from Tina Jones See below her health history Identify one health promotion

nur 2025

Identify at least one sociocultural factor from Tina Jones. See below her health history. Identify one health promotion need and discuss at least one strategy for cultural competency that you could apply during a health promotion teaching activity. About Tina Jones – is African American whom was hospitalized due to changing a light bulb, used a stepstool to reach it foot slid off the bottom step and it got all scraped up. Patient has allergy to cats, allergy to medication penicillin and uses proventil inhaler and has asthma and diabetes which she was diagnosed with at 24. Patient drinks socially with friends no more than 1 or 2 nights a week. Her Mom has high cholesterol and blood pressure. Her Grandpa Jones had colon cancer, and that caused all kinds of problems for him. Plus, he had high blood pressure, and…I’m pretty sure he had diabetes. And high cholesterol like everyone else in my family. Her Granny is her only grandparent who’s still alive. . . she’s my dad’s mom. She’s 82. She has high blood pressure and cholesterol, but otherwise she’s doing pretty well.

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2025 Instructions In this section of the marketing and communication plan you will develop specific marketing strategies to

7-2 Final Project Milestone Three: Marketing and Communication Strategies 2025

Instructions In this section of the marketing and communication plan, you will develop specific marketing strategies to support the service you are proposing for Bellevue Hospital. In addition, you will explain the communication strategies you will use to involve the internal and external stakeholders of the healthcare organization that will be impacted by the proposed service. Note that the stakeholders are unique from your target market. These stakeholders are the individuals who will either partner with you to employ the plan or be impacted by the implementation of the plan. The proposed service for the hospital is a new health payment plan for the uninsured.

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2025 It is important to identify and understand your own family culture in order to be able to

Family Interview – Compare and Contrast Cultures Paper 2025

It is important to identify and understand your own family culture in order to be able to understand and respect other cultures. Interview a family member, and an individual from another culture with which you are unfamiliar. Some examples of an individual from another culture to consider for the assignment include a neighbor, coworker, patient, or friend. Please inform the individuals of the purpose of this assignment and make sure you receive their consent. Interviews: Review the “Family Interview ” template prior to the interview. Additional space is designated on the template for you to create three additional questions to ask both interviewees (family member and person from another culture). Additional questions should be relevant to the readings or discussion and should provide value to the interview by helping to understand culture. Some of the questions may include: Family beliefs: Have they changed over generations? Educational and occupational status in the culture and in the family Communication methods: verbal and nonverbal Current family goals/priorities Family member roles and organizational systems Spiritual beliefs: current practice and death and dying Alternative lifestyles Work attitudes and structure Written Paper: Using the “Family Interview ” template, interview your designated family member and the person from another culture. Be sure to write your responses in a way that will assist you in writing your paper. After the interview is completed, write a paper of 750-1,000 words that includes the following: An introductory paragraph with the reasons for selecting the interviewees A summary of the responses from the interview template gathered from the interviewees A comparison and contrast of your findings between the two interviewees A reflective concluding paragraph on how family roles affect the cultural domains and relationships for each individual General Requirements: Submit both the completed “Family Interview” template and the written paper” to the instructor. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Refer to the LopesWrite Technical Support articles for assistance.

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2025 You are admitting a 19 year old female college student to the hospital for fevers Using the patient information provided

Topic 4 DQ 1 2025

You are admitting a 19-year old female college student to the hospital for fevers. Using the patient information provided, choose a culture unfamiliar to you and describe what would be important to remember while you interview this patient. Discuss the health care support systems available in your community for someone of this culture. If no support systems are available in your community, identify a national resource.

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2025 Competency Prioritize nursing interventions when caring for pediatric clients with health disorders Scenario

Module 08 Assignment – Pediatric Data, Assessment, and Prioritization of Interventions 2025

Competency Prioritize nursing interventions when caring for pediatric clients with health disorders. Scenario A 5-year-old Gabriel is a multiracial male weighing 48 lbs with an allergy to penicillin arrives in the emergency room, no cultural considerations identified. You are handed the following notes on the patient that read: He arrived in ER with his mother after falling out of bed after jerking movement activity as witnessed by his older brother while sleeping. Right-upper extremity appears with deformity. Mother and child speak English. Child has no significant medical history. Mother reports incontinent of urine during episode. Your Assessment Vital Signs : T 102.9, P 135, R 24, BP 118/60, O2 sat 100% RA General Appearance : appears drowsy; face flushed, quiet Neuro : oriented X3 Cardiovascular : unremarkable Respiratory : lungs clear Integumentary : very warm, dry GI/GU : abdomen normal Physician Orders Complete Blood Count (CBC) Complete Metabolic Panel (CMP) Urinalysis with culture and sensitivity (U/A C&S) Blood Cultures x 2 X-rays kidneys, Influenza screening Acetaminophen 15 mg/kg PO now Ibuprofen 10 mg/kg PO now Pad side rails Suction at bedside with seizure precautions Radiographs of right arm Cast to right arm Start PO fluids and increase as tolerated The physician discharges Gabriel from ER to home with a diagnosis of; Right ear infection, Acute Febrile Seizure and fracture of the right ulna. Discharge orders include: Follow up with pediatrician in 7 days Follow up with pediatric orthopedics in 7-10 days Cefuroxime 30mg/kg PO BID for 10 days not to exceed 1,000mg daily. What is the recommended dosage if cefuroxime is supplied as an oral suspension 125mg/5ml or 250/5ml? Acetaminophen 15 mg/kg PO Q4 hours PRN fever or pain and ibuprofen 10 mg/kg PO Q6 hours PRN fever and pain for up to 3 days Acetaminophen is available as 160 mg/5 mL. Ibuprofen is available as 100 mg/ 5 mL. What is the amount of acetaminophen in mg and ml per dose? What is the amount of ibuprofen in mg and ml per dose? Instructions Develop a discharge plan with three goals listed in order of priority, prior to discharge from current orders. Provide rationale for why you listed the goals in a particular order. Also, list three nursing interventions to meet each of the goals (you should have nine interventions in total). Last, give the mother the exact dosage she will need to give the child for acetaminophen, ibuprofen, and the cefuroxime when she gets home and explain why the exact dosage is important. Format Standard American English (correct grammar, punctuation, etc.) Logical, original and insightful Professional organization, style, and mechanics in APA format Submit document through Grammarly to correct errors before submission

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2025 Question 1 2 2 points Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition Question options a True

MN568 Unit 8 Exam Latest…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK 2025

Question 1 2 / 2 points Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition. Question options: a) True b) False Question 2 2 / 2 points Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy? Question options: a) Insulin b) Metformin c) Glucotrol d) Precose Question 3 2 / 2 points After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient? Question options: a) Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation. b) Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan. c) Send her for acupuncture treatments. d) All of the above Question 4 2 / 2 points Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc? Question options: a) Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine b) Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain c) Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate d) Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue Question 5 2 / 2 points John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain.The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear? Question options: a) Valgus stress test b) McMurray circumduction test c) Lachman test d) Varus stress test Question 6 2 / 2 points The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort.Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs? Question options: a) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.” b) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.” c) “You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.” d) “It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.” Question 7 2 / 2 points The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an x-ray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs? Question options: a) Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury b) Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury c) Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle d) All of the above Question 8 2 / 2 points The clinician finds numerous nodules on the thyroid of a 65-year-old woman. The clinician suspects thyroid cancer. Which of the following data would be most significant for this patient? Question options: a) A history of tonsillectomy in the 1940s b) Recent exposure to mumps c) Vegetarian diet d) Allergy to iodine Question 9 2 / 2 points A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods? Question options: a) Rice b) Carrots c) Spinach d) Potatoes Question 10 2 / 2 points One of the most frequent presenting signs/symptoms of osteoporosis is: Question options: a) Goiter b) Abnormal serum calcium c) Elevated urine biochemical markers d) Bony fracture Question 11 2 / 2 points After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies? Question options: a) Elevated TSH b) Normal TSH c) Low TSH d) Undetectable TSH Question 12 2 / 2 points Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain? Question options: a) Decreased C-reactive protein b) Hyperalbuminemia c) Morning stiffness d) Weight gain Question 13 2 / 2 points The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective? Question options: a) “I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.” b) “I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.” c) “It is important to take my medication right after I eat.” d) “Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.” Question 14 2 / 2 points The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis. Question options: a) True b) False Question 15 2 / 2 points Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome? Question options: a) The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist. b) Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position. c) Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection. d) All of the above Question 16 2 / 2 points Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia? Question options: a) Prednisone b) Metformin c) Synthroid d) Cephalexin Question 17 2 / 2 points Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? Question options: a) Gastrocnemius weakness b) A reduced or absent ankle reflex c) Numbness in the lateral foot d) Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks Question 18 2 / 2 points You are performing muscle strength testing on a patient presenting with musculoskeletal pain and find that the patient has complete ROM with gravity eliminated. Which numeric grade of muscle strength would you give this patient? Question options: a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 Question 19 2 / 2 points A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate? Question options: a) “Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.” b) “Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.” c) “Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.” d) All of the above Question 20 2 / 2 points Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus? Question options: a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions c) Random plasma glucose greater than or equal to 200 in a person with symptoms of hyperglycemia d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion Question 21 2 / 2 points A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes? Question options: a) Reduces postprandial blood glucose b) Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL) c) Reduces total cholesterol d) All of the above Question 22 0 / 2 points A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis? Question options: a) Anxiety disorder b) Pheochromocytoma c) Psychosis d) All of the above Question 23 2 / 2 points The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective? Question options: a) “As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.” b) “I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.” c) “My optometrist checks my eyes.” d) “I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.” Question 24 2 / 2 points A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do? Question options: a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment. b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient. c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint. d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture. Question 25 2 / 2 points A patient with type 1 diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of feeling nervous and clammy. He states that he took his insulin this morning but was late for work and did not eat breakfast. Which action should the clinician take first? Question options: a) Check his blood sugar. b) Have him drink 4 ounces of juice. c) Call 911. d) Ask him about his usual eating habits. Question 26 2 / 2 points The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit? Question options: a) High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4 b) Free T4 and serum calcium c) Free T3 and T4 d) TSH and thyroxin antibodies Question 27 2 / 2 points A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes.Which of the following tests should be ordered next? Question options: a) Serum calcium b) TSH c) Electrolytes d) Urine specific gravity Question 28 2 / 2 points Mrs. Gray is a 55-year-old woman who presents with tightness, pain, and limited movement in her right shoulder. She denies any history of trauma. Her examination reveals a 75% reduction in both active and passive ROM of the right shoulder. Mrs. Gray also is experiencing tenderness with motion and pain at the deltoid insertion. Her medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her social history reveals that she is a secretary and that she is right-handed. Based on her examination and medical history, you suspect adhesive capsulitis, or “frozen shoulder.” Which clue in Mrs. Gray’s history supports this diagnosis? Question options: a) History of hypertension b) Her affected shoulder is also her dominant arm. c) Her history of diabetes mellitus d) Her work as a secretary predisposes her to repetitive motions. Question 29 2 / 2 points What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass? Question options: a) 1,200 mg/day b) 1,000 mg/day c) 1,300 mg/day d) 1,500 mg/day Question 30 2 / 2 points A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease? Question options: a) Sinus bradycardia b) Atrial fibrillation c) Supraventricular tachycardia d) U waves Question 31 2 / 2 points You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is: Question options: a) Articular b) Inflammatory c) Nonarticular d) A and B Question 32 2 / 2 points Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true? Question options: a) There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible. b) Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function. c) Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications. d) All of the above Question 33 2 / 2 points Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is: a) Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle b) Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm c) Inability to supinate and pronate the arm d) Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance Question 34 2 / 2 points Mrs. Allen is a 60-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with osteoporosis. She is very concerned about the risk of breast cancer associated with hormone replacement therapy and is wondering what other treatments are available to her. The clinician explains that bisphosphonates are another class of drugs used in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. What teaching should the clinician give Mrs. Allen in regard to taking bisphosphonates? Question options: a) Taking bisphosphonates can result in hypercalcemia, so calcium intake should be decreased while taking this class of drugs. b) There is potential for upper GI irritation, so these medications are contraindicated in people with abnormalities of the esophagus or delayed esophageal emptying. c) This class of drugs can be taken at any time of the day without regard to meals. d) None of the above Question 35 2 / 2 points The clinician suspects that a client has patellar instability. In order to test for this, the client is seated with the quadriceps relaxed, and the knee is placed in extension. Next the patella is displaced laterally, and the knee flexed to 30°. If instability is present, this maneuver displaces the patella to an abnormal position on the lateral femoral condyle, and the client will perceive pain. Testing for patellar instability in this way is known as: Question options: a) Apprehension sign b) Bulge sign c) Thumb sign d) None of the above Question 36 2 / 2 points Normal estrogen function is important for preventing osteoporosis in both men and women. Estrogen works to prevent osteoporosis in which of the following ways? Question options: a) By decreasing the erosive activity of osteoclasts b) By promoting osteoclastogenesis c) By inhibiting osteoclast apoptosis d) All of the above Question 37 2 / 2 points Which of the following tests should you order to confirm Mr.W’s diagnosis? Question options: a) Bone scan b) Computed tomography (CT) scan c) X-ray of the foot d) Culture of the ulcer Question 38 2 / 2 points One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure? Question options: a) Bone b) Synovium c) Tendons d) Fascia Question 39 2 / 2 points Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient? Question options: a) Elevated uric acid level b) Elevated blood urea nitrogen c) Decreased urine pH d) Decreased C-reactive protein Question 40 2 / 2 points Urine-free cortisol is one of four diagnostic tests recommended for Cushing’s syndrome. Question options: a) True b) False Question 41 2 / 2 points Joyce is seen in the clinic complaining of vague symptoms of nervousness and irritability. She says that her hair will not hold a permanent wave anymore. On physical examination, the clinician finds an irregular heartbeat and brisk reflexes. The differential diagnosis should include which of the following conditions? Question options: a) Myxedema b) Thyrotoxicosis c) Cushing’s syndrome d) Pan-hypopituitarism Question 42 0 / 2 points How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes? Question options: a) Once a year b) Every 6 months c) Every 3 months d) Every visit Question 43 2 / 2 points A BMI of 29 kg/m2 is considered obesity. Question options: a) True b) False Question 44 2 / 2 points Jennifer is an 18-year-old who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited ROM in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation? Question options: a) Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations. b) There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses. c) Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require great force to result in injury. d) Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice. Question 45 2 / 2 points The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications? Question options: a) Low-dose aspirin b) Thiazide diuretics c) Ethambutol d) All of the above Question 46 2 / 2 points Metformin is the first line of pharmacologic treatment for type 2 DM. Question options: a) True b) False Question 47 2 / 2 points Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome? Question options: a) Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel. b) Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel. c) An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel. d) Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance. Question 48 2 / 2 points Fruit juice with added sugar is the treatment of choice for anyone experiencing hypoglycemia. Question options: a) True b) False Question 49 2 / 2 points The patient is prescribed radioactive iodine (RAI) and asks the clinician how this drug works. The clinician’s response should include which of the following data? Question options: a) RAI prevents the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. b) RAI binds free T4. c) RAI destroys thyroid tissue. d) RAI reduces freely circulating iodine. Question 50 2 / 2 points Lifestyle modification is the treatment of choice for metabolic syndrome. Question options: a) True b) False

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2025 Topic 2 DQ 1 Family is defined as 2 or more persons There

What is a definition of family that encompasses the different family structures prevalent today? 2025

: Topic 2 DQ 1 Family is defined as 2 or more persons. There are different structures of families. The traditional family contains parents and children. Single parent family is one parent raising a child or children. The extended family is more than 2 adults with children. A childless family is a couple with no children. The step family is a couple bringing in their children from previous marriages and combining into one. A nontraditional family is of parents that are adolscents and or gay/lesbian couples that adopt. It is important to acknowledge all structural types of families and how the children are raised in those families. A traditional family does not mean the child will be raised best. It is about the bond between guardian and child. In today’s time, we cannot be surprised by what kind of family structure someone is living in. The best way to approach this possibility is to avoid making assumptions by being careful with your language, letting them know that you’re welcoming of difference, being open and honest in seeking more knowledge, recognizing when your questions are encouraged or resented, and responding appropriately (everyday feminism, 2020). A family systems theory looks at a certain family structure emotionally. It is important to use the family systems theory to determine if a child of a specific family has anxiety or any other psych disorders due to their upbringing. It helps an individual to learn to cope or adapt. Family systems therapy is a form of psychotherapy that supports people in resolving conflicts with their family or problems that exist within a family unit (better help, 2021). All members of the family contribute to the dynamic of whether the family is functioning in a healthy or dysfunctional way (better help, 2021). everyday feminism (2020). Retrieved from https://everydayfeminism.com/2014/05/talk-about-nontraditional-family/ better help (2021). Retrieved from https://www.betterhelp.com/advice/therapy/what-is-family- Respond to the above student’s post using 200-300 words APA format with references supporting with discussions

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