2025 Discussion The Application of Data to Problem Solving In the modern era there are few professions

DQ-W1: TN 2025

Discussion: The Application of Data to Problem-Solving In the modern era, there are few professions that do not to some extent rely on data. Stockbrokers rely on market data to advise clients on financial matters. Meteorologists rely on weather data to forecast weather conditions, while realtors rely on data to advise on the purchase and sale of property. In these and other cases, data not only helps solve problems, but adds to the practitioner’s and the discipline’s body of knowledge. Of course, the nursing profession also relies heavily on data. The field of nursing informatics aims to make sure nurses have access to the appropriate date to solve healthcare problems, make decisions in the interest of patients, and add to knowledge. In this Discussion, you will consider a scenario that would benefit from access to data and how such access could facilitate both problem-solving and knowledge formation. To Prepare: Reflect on the concepts of informatics and knowledge work as presented in the Resources. Consider a hypothetical scenario based on your own healthcare practice or organization that would require or benefit from the access/collection and application of data. Your scenario may involve a patient, staff, or management problem or gap. Post a description of the focus of your scenario. Describe the data that could be used and how the data might be collected and accessed. What knowledge might be derived from that data? How would a nurse leader use clinical reasoning and judgment in the formation of knowledge from this experience? Learning Resources Note: To access this week’s required library resources, please click on the link to the Course Readings List, found in the Course Materials section of your Syllabus. Required Readings McGonigle, D., & Mastrian, K. G. (2017). Nursing informatics and the foundation of knowledge (4th ed.). Burlington, MA: Jones & Bartlett Learning. Chapter 1, “Nursing Science and the Foundation of Knowledge” (pp. 7–19) Chapter 2, “Introduction to Information, Information Science, and Information Systems” (pp. 21–33) Chapter 3, “Computer Science and the Foundation of Knowledge Model” (pp. 35–62) 24Slides. (2018). How to make an infographic in PowerPoint. Retrieved September 27, 2018, from https://24slides.com/presentbetter/how-make-infographic-powerpoint/ Nagle, L., Sermeus, W., & Junger, A. (2017). Evolving role of the nursing informatics specialist. In J. Murphy, W. Goossen, & P. Weber (Eds.), Forecasting Competencies for Nurses in the Future of Connected Health (212–221). Clifton, VA: IMIA and IOS Press. Retrieved from https://serval.unil.ch/resource/serval:BIB_4A0FEA56B8CB.P001/REF Sweeney, J. (2017). Healthcare informatics. Online Journal of Nursing Informatics, 21(1). Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases. NOTE: READ THE DOCUMENTS, BOOKS AND MEDIA PRESENTATION VIDEO ATTACHED BELLOW

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2025 FOLLOW EVERY INSTRUCTION YOU HAVE TO USE THE DOCUMENTS ATTACHED BELLOW TO

Benchmark- Research Critique and Picot Statement Final Draft 2025

FOLLOW EVERY INSTRUCTION.. YOU HAVE TO USE THE DOCUMENTS ATTACHED BELLOW TO ANSWER THE SSIGMENT.. USE RUBRICS TO ANSWER THE ASSIGMENT..HAS TO BE FREE OF PLAGIARISM. Details: Prepare this assignment as a 1,500-1,750 word paper using the instructor feedback from the Topic 1, 2, and 3 assignments and the guidelines below. PICOT Statement Revise the PICOT statement you wrote in the Topic 1 assignment. The final PICOT statement will provide a framework for your capstone project (the project students must complete during their final course in the RN-BSN program of study). Research Critiques In the Topic 2 and Topic 3 assignments you completed a qualitative and quantitative research critique. Use the feedback you received from your instructor on these assignments to finalize the critical analysis of the study by making appropriate revisions. The completed analysis should connect to your identified practice problem of interest that is the basis for your PICOT statement. Refer to “Research Critique Guidelines.” Questions under each heading should be addressed as a narrative in the structure of a formal paper. Proposed Evidence-Based Practice Change Discuss the link between the PICOT statement, the research articles, and the nursing practice problem you identified. Include relevant details and supporting explanation and use that information to propose evidence-based practice changes. Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center. RUBRICS Benchmark – Research Critiques and PICOT Statement Final Draft 1 Unsatisfactory 0.00% 2 Less than Satisfactory 75.00% 3 Satisfactory 83.00% 4 Good 94.00% 5 Excellent 100.00% 60.0 % Content 5.0 % Nursing Practice Problem and PICOT Statement A nursing practice problem is not clearly described and/or a PICOT statement is not included. PICOT statement describes a nursing practice problem but lacks reliable sources. PICOT statement describes a nursing practice problem and includes a few reliable sources. PICOT statement articulates a nursing practice problem using supporting information from reliable sources. PICOT statement clearly articulates a nursing practice problem using substantial supporting information from numerous reliable sources. 5.0 % Background of Study Background of study including problem, significance to nursing, purpose, objective, and research questions is incomplete. Background of study including problem, significance to nursing, purpose, objective, and research questions is included but lacks relevant details and explanation. Background of study including problem, significance to nursing, purpose, objective, and research questions is partially complete and includes some relevant details and explanation. Background of study including problem, significance to nursing, purpose, objective, and research questions is complete and includes relevant details and explanation. Background of study including problem, significance to nursing, purpose, objective, and research questions is thorough with substantial relevant details and extensive explanation. 5.0 % Method of Study Discussion of method of study including discussion of conceptual/theoretical framework is incomplete. Discussion of method of study including discussion of conceptual/theoretical framework is included but lacks relevant details and explanation. Discussion of method of study including discussion of conceptual/theoretical framework is partially complete and includes some relevant details and explanation. Discussion of method of study including discussion of conceptual/theoretical framework is complete and includes relevant details and explanation. Discussion of method of study including discussion of conceptual/theoretical framework is thorough with substantial relevant details and extensive explanation. 5.0 % Results of Study Discussion of study results including findings and implications for nursing practice is incomplete. Discussion of study results including findings and implications for nursing practice is included but lacks relevant details and explanation. Discussion of study results including findings and implications for nursing practice is partially complete and includes some relevant details and explanation. Discussion of study results including findings and implications for nursing practice is complete and includes relevant details and explanation. Discussion of study results including findings and implications for nursing practice is thorough with substantial relevant details and extensive explanation. 5.0 % Ethical Considerations Discussion of ethical considerations associated with the conduct of nursing research is incomplete. Discussion of ethical considerations associated with the conduct of nursing research is included but lacks relevant details and explanation. Discussion of ethical considerations associated with the conduct of nursing research is partially complete and includes some relevant details and explanation. Discussion of ethical considerations associated with the conduct of nursing research is complete and includes relevant details and explanation. Discussion of ethical considerations associated with the conduct of nursing research is thorough with substantial relevant details and extensive explanation. 5.0 % Conclusion Conclusion does not summarize a critical appraisal and applicability of findings. Conclusion is vague and does not discuss importance to nursing. Conclusion summarizes utility of the research and importance to nursing practice. Conclusion summarizes utility of the research from the critical appraisal and the findings importance to nursing practice. Conclusion summarizes utility of the research from the critical appraisal, knowledge learned, and the importance of the findings to nursing practice. 10.0 % Evidence of Revision Final paper does not demonstrate incorporation of feedback or evidence of revision on research critiques. Incorporation of research critique feedback or evidence of revision is incomplete. Incorporation of research critique feedback and evidence of revision are present. Evidence of incorporation of research critique feedback and revision is clearly provided. Evidence of incorporation of research critique feedback and revision is comprehensive and thoroughly developed. 10.0 % PICOT Statement, Research Article, and Nursing Practice Problem Link (C. 2.2) Discussion of the link between the PICOT statement, research articles, and nursing practice problem is not included. Discussion of the link between the PICOT statement, research articles, and nursing practice problem is incomplete or incorrect. Discussion of the link between the PICOT statement, research articles, and nursing practice problem is included but lacks relevant details and supporting explanation. Discussion of the link between the PICOT statement, research articles, and nursing practice problem is complete and includes relevant details and supporting explanation. Discussion of the link between the PICOT statement, research articles, and nursing practice problem is extremely thorough with substantial relevant details and extensive supporting explanation. 10.0 % Proposed Evidence-Based Practice Change (C. 3.2) The proposed evidence-based practice change is not included. The proposed evidence-based practice change is incomplete or incorrect. Discussion of the link between the PICOT statement, research articles, and nursing practice problem is included but lacks relevant details and supporting explanation. The proposed evidence-based practice change is included but lacks supporting explanation and relevant details. The proposed evidence-based practice change is complete and includes supporting explanation and relevant details. The proposed evidence-based practice change is extremely thorough and includes substantial supporting explanation and numerous relevant details. 30.0 % Organization and Effectiveness 10.0 % Thesis Development and Purpose Paper lacks any discernible overall purpose or organizing claim. Thesis is insufficiently developed or vague. Purpose is not clear. Thesis is apparent and appropriate to purpose. Thesis is clear and forecasts the development of the paper. Thesis is descriptive and reflective of the arguments and appropriate to the purpose. Thesis is comprehensive and contains the essence of the paper. Thesis statement makes the purpose of the paper clear. 10.0 % Argument Logic and Construction Statement of purpose is not justified by the conclusion. The conclusion does not support the claim made. Argument is incoherent and uses noncredible sources. Sufficient justification of claims is lacking. Argument lacks consistent unity. There are obvious flaws in the logic. Some sources have questionable credibility. Argument is orderly, but may have a few inconsistencies. The argument presents minimal justification of claims. Argument logically, but not thoroughly, supports the purpose. Sources used are credible. Introduction and conclusion bracket the thesis. Argument shows logical progressions. Techniques of argumentation are evident. There is a smooth progression of claims from introduction to conclusion. Most sources are authoritative. Argument is clear and convincing and presents a persuasive claim in a distinctive and compelling manner. All sources are authoritative. 10.0 % Mechanics of Writing (includes spelling, punctuation, grammar, language use) Surface errors are pervasive enough that they impede communication of meaning. Inappropriate word choice or sentence construction is used. Frequent and repetitive mechanical errors distract the reader. Inconsistencies in language choice (register), sentence structure, or word choice are present. Some mechanical errors or typos are present, but they are not overly distracting to the reader. Correct sentence structure and audience-appropriate language are used. Prose is largely free of mechanical errors, although a few may be present. A variety of sentence structures and effective figures of speech are used. Writer is clearly in command of standard, written, academic English. 10.0 % Format 5.0 % Paper Format (use of appropriate style for the major and assignment) Template is not used appropriately or documentation format is rarely followed correctly. Template is used, but some elements are missing or mistaken; lack of control with formatting is apparent. Template is used, and formatting is correct, although some minor errors may be present. Template is fully used; There are virtually no errors in formatting style. All format elements are correct. 5.0 % Documentation of Sources (citations, footnotes, references, bibliography, etc., as appropriate to assignment and style) Sources are not documented. Documentation of sources is inconsistent or incorrect, as appropriate to assignment and style, with numerous formatting errors. Sources are documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, although some formatting errors may be present. Sources are documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is mostly correct. Sources are completely and correctly documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is free of error. 100 % Total Weightage

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2025 Topic Incompetent nurses paper for ethic Direction Introduction Summary of what is known about the ethical issue Well summarized Ethical

Incompetent nurses (ethic paper) 2025

Topic: Incompetent nurses paper for ethic Direction: Introduction: Summary of what is known about the ethical issue Well summarized Ethical Dimensions of the Issue Identified and Discussed (why is this an ethical issue) Relevance of the Ethical Issue to Health Professions/Nursing Relevance of the Ethical Issue to Nursing Relevant Ethical Analysis (Principles, Ethical Theories, Laws, and Standards of Practice) Complete Analysis of Principles, Ethical Theories, Laws, and SOP Personal Professional Response to the Issue Thorough discussion Conclusion: Reflection of What you Learned Reflection clearly articulated Correct APA Style (7th) Correct Length 7 pages of text, PLUS title page and references The paper will be 7 pages in length—and not exceeding 7 pages of text. Title page/references are NOT included in this count. Two points will be deducted for each page over the maximum number. A pdf. version of the paper may NOT be submitted —only a Word document Minimum of 3 professional nursing references, 5 years old or less (2016 to 2021)

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2025 Assessment 1 Instructions Collaboration and Leadership Reflection Video NOTE I need a script created so I can

Video Script: Collaboration and Leadership Reflection Video 2025

Assessment 1 Instructions: Collaboration and Leadership Reflection Video NOTE: I need a script created so I can follow to record this video 😉 Thank you. For this assessment you will create a 5-10 minute video reflection on an experience in which you collaborated interprofessionally, as well as a brief discussion of an interprofessional collaboration scenario and how it could have been better approached. Interprofessional collaboration is a critical aspect of a nurse’s work. Through interprofessional collaboration, practitioners and patients share information and consider each other’s perspectives to better understand and address the many factors that contribute to health and well-being (Sullivan et al., 2015). Essentially, by collaborating, health care practitioners and patients can have better health outcomes. Nurses, who are often at the frontlines of interacting with various groups and records, are full partners in this approach to health care. Reflection is a key part of building interprofessional competence, as it allows you to look critically at experiences and actions through specific lenses. From the standpoint of interprofessional collaboration, reflection can help you consider potential reasons for and causes of people’s actions and behaviors (Saunders et al., 2016). It also can provide opportunities to examine the roles team members adopted in a given situation as well as how the team could have worked more effectively. As you begin to prepare this assessment you are encouraged to complete the What is Reflective Practice? activity. The activity consists of five questions that will allow you the opportunity to practice self-reflection. The information gained from completing this formative will help with your success on the Collaboration and Leadership Reflection Video assessment. Completing formatives is also a way to demonstrate course engagement Note : The Example Kaltura Reflection demonstrates how to cite sources appropriately in an oral presentation/video. The Example Kaltura Reflection video is not a reflection on the Vila Health activity. Your reflection assessment will focus on both your professional experience and the Vila Health activity as described in the scenario. References Saunders, R., Singer, R., Dugmore, H., Seaman, K., & Lake, F. (2016). Nursing students’ reflections on an interprofessional placement in ambulatory care. Reflective Practice, 17 (4), 393–402. Sullivan, M., Kiovsky, R., Mason, D., Hill, C., & Duke, C. (2015). Interprofessional collaboration and education. American Journal of Nursing, 115 (3), 47–54. Demonstration of Proficiency Competency 1: Explain strategies for managing human and financial resources to promote organizational health. Identify how poor collaboration can result in inefficient management of human and financial resources supported by evidence from the literature. Competency 2: Explain how interdisciplinary collaboration can be used to achieve desired patient and systems outcomes. Reflect on an interdisciplinary collaboration experience noting ways in which it was successful and unsuccessful in achieving desired outcomes. Identify best-practice interdisciplinary collaboration strategies to help a team to achieve its goals and work more effectively together. Competency 4: Explain how change management theories and leadership strategies can enable interdisciplinary teams to achieve specific organizational goals. Identify best-practice leadership strategies from the literature, which would improve an interdisciplinary team’s ability to achieve its goals. Competency 5: Apply professional, scholarly, evidence-based communication strategies to impact patient, interdisciplinary team, and systems outcomes. Communicate in a professional manner that is easily audible and uses proper grammar. Format reference list in current APA style. Professional Context This assessment will help you to become a reflective practitioner. By considering your own successes and shortcomings in interprofessional collaboration, you will increase awareness of your problem-solving abilities. You will create a video of your reflections, including a discussion of best practices of interprofessional collaboration and leadership strategies, cited in the literature. Scenario As part of an initiative to build effective collaboration at your Vila Health site, where you are a nurse, you have been asked to reflect on a project or experience in which you collaborated interprofessionally and examine what happened during the collaboration, identifying positive aspects and areas for improvement. You have also been asked to review a series of events that took place at another Vila Health location and research interprofessional collaboration best practices and use the lessons learned from your experiences to make recommendations for improving interprofessional collaboration among their team. Your task is to create a 5–10 minute video reflection with suggestions for the Vila Health team that can be shared with leadership as well as Vila Health colleagues at your site. Note: If you require the use of assistive technology or alternative communication methods to participate in this activity, please contact [email protected] to request accommodations. If, for some reason, you are unable to record a video, please contact your faculty member as soon as possible to explore options for completing the assessment. Instructions Using Kaltura, record a 5–10 minute video reflection on an interprofessional collaboration experience from your personal practice, proposing suggestions on how to improve the collaboration presented in the Vila Health: Collaboration for Change activity. Be sure that your assessment addresses the following criteria. Please study the scoring guide carefully so you will know what is needed for a distinguished score: Reflect on an interdisciplinary collaboration experience, noting ways in which it was successful and unsuccessful in achieving desired outcomes. Identify how poor collaboration can result in inefficient management of human and financial resources, citing supporting evidence from the literature. Identify best-practice leadership strategies from the literature that would improve an interdisciplinary team’s ability to achieve its goals, citing at least one author from the literature. Identify best-practice interdisciplinary collaboration strategies to help a team achieve its goals and work together, citing the work of at least one author. Communicate in a professional manner, is easily audible, and uses proper grammar. Format reference list in current APA style. You will need to relate an experience that you have had collaborating on a project. This could be at your current or former place of practice, or another relevant project that will enable you to address the requirements. In addition to describing your experience, you should explain aspects of the collaboration that helped the team make progress toward relevant goals or outcomes, as well as aspects of the collaboration that could have been improved. A simplified gap-analysis approach may be useful: What happened? What went well? What did not go well? What should have happened? After your personal reflection, examine the scenario in the Vila Health activity and discuss the ways in which the interdisciplinary team did not collaborate effectively and the negative implications for the human and financial resources of the interdisciplinary team and the organization as a whole. Building on this investigation, identify at least one leadership best practice or strategy that you believe would improve the team’s ability to achieve their goals. Be sure to identify the strategy and its source or author and provide a brief rationale for your choice of strategy. Additionally, identify at least one interdisciplinary collaboration best practice or strategy to help the team achieve its goals and work more effectively together. Again, identify the strategy, its source, and reasons why you think it will be effective. You are encouraged to integrate lessons learned from your self-reflection to support and enrich your discussion of the Vila Health activity. You are required to submit an APA-formatted reference list for any sources that you cited specifically in your video or used to inform your presentation. The Example Kaltura Reflection will show you how to cite scholarly sources in the context of an oral presentation. Refer to the Campus tutorial Using Kaltura [PDF] as needed to record and upload your reflection. Additional Requirements References: Cite at least 3 professional or scholarly sources of evidence to support the assertions you make in your video. Include additional properly cited references as necessary to support your statements. APA Reference Page: Submit a correctly formatted APA reference page that shows all the sources you used to create and deliver your video. You may wish to refer to the Campus APA Module for more information on applying APA style. Portfolio Prompt : Remember to save the final assessment to your ePortfolio so that you may refer to it as you complete the final Capstone course.

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2025 What evidence do you read that may be indicative of depression How can you assess Eugene s baseline functional status What

menta health assignment 2025

What evidence do you read that may be indicative of depression? How can you assess Eugene’s baseline functional status? What coping strategies does Eugene use? Who are Eugene’s support system and how can they help him? What evidence of anxiety do you hear as Eugene talks? What are Eugene’s strengths and weaknesses? The SCENARIO CAN BE FOUND IN THE POWERPOINT M.1 and In Module 1

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2025 NURS 6531N FINAL EXAM 2 VERSIONS NURS 6531N MIDTERM EXAM 2 VERSIONS 100 CORRECT Q

NURS 6531N FINAL EXAM (2 VERSIONS) & NURS 6531N MIDTERM EXAM (2 VERSIONS) (100 CORRECT Q & A IN EACH VERSION, TOTAL: 400 Q & A) 2025

NURS 6531N FINAL EXAM (2 VERSIONS) & NURS 6531N MIDTERM EXAM (2 VERSIONS) (100 CORRECT Q & A IN EACH VERSION, TOTAL: 400 Q & A) NURS 6531 Final Exam / NURS6531 Final Exam (Latest): Walden University Walden NURS 6531 Final Exam / Walden NURS6531 Final Exam (Latest) · Question 1 When  completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct  including the expectations for academic integrity? · Question 2 Central obesity, “moon” face, and dorsocervical fat pad  are associated with: A. Metabolic  syndrome B. Unilateral  pheochromocytoma C. Cushing’s  syndrome D. None  of the above · Question 3 An elderly man is started on lisinopril and  hydrochlorhiazide for hypertension. Three days later, he returns to the  office complaining of left great toe pain. On exam, the nurse practitioner  notes an edematous, erythematous tender left great toe. The likely  precipitant of this patient’s pain is: A. Trauma B. Tight  shoes C. Arthritis  flare D. Hydrochlorothiazide · Question 4 The most effective treatment of non-infectious bursitis  includes: · Question 5 What conditions must be met for you to bill “incident to”  the physician, receiving 100% reimbursement from Medicare? Answers: You must initiate the plan  of care for the patient The physician must be  on-site and engaged in patient care You must be employed as an  independent contractor You must be the main health  care provider who sees the patient · Question 6 Which of the following is not a risk factor associated  with the development of syndrome X and type 2 diabetes mellitus? · Question 7 Which of the following is not a common early sign of  benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? A.  Nocturia B. Urgency incontinence C. Strong urinary stream flow D. Straining to void · Question 8 Steve, age 69, has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).  When teaching him how to reduce his lower esophageal sphincter pressure,  which substances do you recommend that he avoid? § Food that is very hot or very cold § Fatty or fried foods § Peppermint or spearmint, including flavoring § Coffee, tea, and soft drinks that contain caffeine § Spicy, highly seasoned foods § Fried foodDT caffeine, chocolate and anticholinergics · Question 9 Which drug category contains the drugs that are the first  line Gold standard therapy for COPD? · Question 10 The most commonly recommended pharmacological treatment  regimen for low back pain (LBP) is: · Question 11 Which of the following is not appropriate suppression  therapy for chronic bacterial prostatitis? · Question 12 A patient presents with dehydration, hypotension, and  fever. Laboratory testing reveals hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and  hypoglycemia. These imbalances are corrected, but the patient returns 6 weeks  later with the same symptoms of hyperpigmentation, weakness, anorexia,  fatigue, and weight loss. What action(s) should the nurse practitioner take? .A Obtain a  thorough history and physical, and check serum cortisol and ACTH levels. B. Perform a diet history and check CBC and FBS. C. Provide nutritional guidance and have the patient return in one month. D. Consult home health for intravenous administration · Question 13 The nurse practitioner diagnoses epididymitis in a 24 year old sexually active male patient. The drug of choice for treatment of this patient is: · Question 14 How do you respond when Jessica, age 42, asks you what constitutes a good minimum cardiovascular workout? · Question 15 The intervention known to be most effective in the  treatment of severe depression, with or without psychosis, is: · Question 16 You are assessing a patient after a sports injury to his  right knee. You elicit a positive anterior/posterior drawer sign. This test  indicates an injury to the: he A. lateral meniscus B. cruciate ligament C. medial meniscus D. collateral ligament. · Question 17 A 32 year old female patient presents with fever, chills,  right flank pain, right costovertebral angle tenderness, and hematuria. Her  urinalysis is positive for leukocytes and red blood cells. The nurse  practitioner diagnoses pyelonephritis. The most appropriate management is: · Question 18 A 21-year-old female presents to the office  complaining of urinary frequency and urinary burning. The nurse practitioner  suspects a urinary tract infection when the urinalysis reveals · Question 19 A middle-aged man presents to urgent care complaining of  pain of the medial condyle of the lower humerus. The man works as a carpenter  and describes a gradual onset of pain. On exam, the medial epicondyle is  tender and pain is increased with flexion and pronation. Range of motion is  full The most likely cause of this patient’s pain is: · Question 20 The initial clinical sign of Dupuytren’s contracture is: · · Question 21 The best test to determine microalbuminuria to assist in  the diagnosis of diabetic neuropathy · Question 22 What is the first symptom seen in the majority of patients  with Parkinson’s disease? · Question 23 The most commonly recommended method for prostate cancer  screening in a 55 year old male is: · Question 24 Martin, age 24, presents with an erythematous ear canal,  pain, and a recent history of swimming. What do you suspect? · Question 25 Which of  the following symptoms suggests a more serious cause of back pain? · Question 26 Josh, age 22, is a stock boy and has an acute episode of  low back pain. You order and NSAID and tell him which of the following? · Question 27 A 72 year old female patient reports a 6 month  history of gradually progressive swollen and painful distal interphalangeal  (DIP) joints of one hand. She has no systemic symptoms but the erythrocyte  sedimentation rate (ESR), antinuclear antibody (ANA), and rheumatoid factor  (RF) are all minimally elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis? · Question 28 A patient taking levothyroxine is being  over-replaced. What condition is he at risk for? · Question 29 Which of the following is the most common cause of low  back pain? A. Lumbar  disc disease B. Spinal  stenosis C. Traumatic  fracture D. Osteoporosis · Question 30 Which is the most common cause of end-stage renal disease  in the United States? · Question 31 A 77-year-old female presents to the office complaining a  sudden swelling on her right elbow. She denies fever, chills, trauma, or  pain. The physical exam reveals a non-tender area of swelling over the  extensor surface over the right elbow with evidence of trauma or irritation.  The nurse practitioner suspects: A. Arthritis B. Ulnar  neuritis C. Septic  arthritis D. Olecranon  bursitis · Question 32 A 60 year old female patient complains of sudden onset  unilateral, stabbing, surface pain in the lower part of her face lasting a  few minutes, subsiding, and then returning. The pain is triggered by touch or  temperature extremes. Physical examination is normal. Which of the following  is the most likely diagnosis? · Question 33 Beth, age 49, comes in with low back pain. An x-ray of the  lumbosacral spine is within normal limits. Which of the following diagnoses  do you explore further? · Question 34 A patient exhibits extrapyramidal side effects of  antipsychotic medications. Which of the following symptoms would lead you to  look for another diagnosis? · Question 35 Phalen’s test, 90°wrist flexion for 60 seconds, reproduces  symptoms of: · Question 36 Jennifer says that she has heard that caffeine can cause  osteoporosis and asks you why. How do you respond? · Question 37 The most common cause of elevated liver function tests is: · Question 38 Reed-Sternberg B lymphocytes are associated with which of  the following disorders: A. Aplastic anemia B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma C. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma D. Myelodysplastic syndromes · Question 39 Which of the following is a potential acquired cause of  thrombophilia? A. Homocysteinuria B. Protein C deficiency C. Factor V Leiden D. Antiphospholipid antibodies · Question 41 A 75-year-old female is diagnosed with primary  hyperparathyroidism and asks the nurse practitioner what the treatment for  this disorder is. The nurse practitioner explains: Primary  hyperparathyroidism is treated with Vitamin D restriction Primary  hyperparathyroidism is treated with parathyroidectomy Primary  hyperparathyroidism is treated with daily magnesium Primary  hyperparathyroidism is treated with parenteral parathyroid hormone (PTH) · Question 42 Diagnostic confirmation of acute leukemia is based on: · · Question 43 A 25 year old overweight patient presents with a  complaint of dull achiness in his groin and history of a palpable lump in his  scrotum that “comes and goes”. On physical examination, the nurse  practitioner does not detect a scrotal mass. There is no tenderness, edema,  or erythema of the scrotum, the scrotum does not transilluminate. What is the  most likely diagnosis? A. Testicular  torsion B. Epididymitis C. Inguinal hernia D. Varicocele · Question 44 Dave, age 38, states that he thinks he has an ear  infection because he just flew back from a business trip and feels unusual  pressure in his ear. You diagnose barotrauma. What is your next action? A. Prescribe nasal steroids and oral decongestants B. Prescribe antibiotic eardrops C. Prescribe systemic eardrops D. Refer David to an ear, nose, and throat specialist · Question 45 Which of the following antibiotics should not be  prescribed for a pregnant woman in the 3rd trimester? · Question 46 The physiological explanation of syncope is: · Question 47 A 20 year old male patient complains of “scrotal  swelling.” He states his scrotum feels heavy, but denies pain. On  examination, the nurse practitioner notes transillumination of the scrotum.  What is the most likely diagnosis? · Question 48 A 32 year old male patient complains of urinary  frequency and burning on urination for 3 days. Urinalysis reveals  bacteriuria. He denies any past history of urinary tract infection. The  initial treatment should be: nclude nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals,  trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), or fosfomycin. · Question 49 Diagnostic radiological studies are indicated for low back  pain: · Question 50 Who is at a higher risk for developing nephrolithiasis? · · Question 51 An 81-year-old female is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.  When considering drug therapy for this patient, the nurse practitioner is  most concerned with which of the following side effects? A. Weight  gain B. Fracture  risk C. Hypoglycemia D. Weight  loss · Question 52 A 28-year-old female presents to the office requesting  testing for diagnosis of hereditary thrombophilia. Her father recently had a  deep vein thrombosis and she is concerned about her risk factors. The nurse  practitioner explains that: · Question 53 The diagnosis of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection in  males is usually made by: · Question 54 Which history is commonly found in a patient with  glomerulonephritis? · Question 55 A  patient complains of generalized joint pain and stiffness associated with  activity and relieved with rest. This patient history is consistent with  which of the following disorders? · Question 56 The most common presentation of thyroid cancer is: · Question 57 The obligatory criteria for diagnosis of muscular  dystrophy (MD) are: · Question 58 The diagnosis which must be considered in a patient who  presents with a severe headache of sudden onset, with neck stiffness and  fever, is: · Question 59 A 60 year old male patient with multiple health  problems presents with a complaint of erectile dysfunction (ED). Of the  following, which medication is most likely to be causing the problem? · Question 60 A 72 year old patient exhibits sudden onset of fluctuating  restlessness, agitation, confusion, and impaired attention. This is  accompanied by visual hallucinations and sleep disturbance. What is the most  likely cause of this behavior? A. Dementia C. Parkinson’s disease D. Depression · Question 61 Which of the following set of symptoms should raise  suspicion of a brain tumor? · Question 62 The cornerstone of treatment for  stress fracture of the femur or metatarsal stress fracture is: · Question 63 Sally, a computer programmer, has just been given a new diagnosis  of carpal tunnel syndrome. Your next step is to: · Question 64 Marsha presents with symptoms resembling both fibromyalgia  and chronic fatigue syndrome, which have many similarities. Which of the  following is more characteristic of fibromyalgia? A.  Musculosckeletal pain B. Difficulty sleeping C. Depression D. Fatigue · Question 65 The cardinal sign of infectious arthritis is: · Question 66 Diagnostic evaluation for urinary calculi includes: · Question 67 Martin, a 58 year old male with diabetes, is at your  office for his diabetes follow up. On examining his feet with monofilament,  you discover that he has developed decreased sensation in both feet. There are  no open areas or signs of infection on his feet. What health teaching should  Martin receive today regarding the care if his feet? See a  podiatrist yearly; wash your feet daily with warm, soapy water and towel dry between the toes; inspect your feet daily for any lesions; and apply lotion to any dry areas. · Question 68 Potential causes of septic  arthritis include which of the following? · Question 69 Which of the following is the best response to a woman who  has just admitted she is a victim of spousal abuse? · Question 70 A 15 year-old female patient is 5 feet tall and weighs 85  pounds. You suspect anorexia and know that the best initial approach is to: Having  the client in view of staff for 90 minutes after each meal · Question 71 A 63-year-old man presents to the office with hematuria,  hesitancy, and dribbling. Digital rectal exam (DRE) reveals a moderately  enlarged prostate that is smooth. The PSA is 1.2. What is the most  appropriate management strategy for you to follow at this time? A. Prescribe  an alpha adrenergic blocker. B. Recommend saw palmetto. C. Prescribe an antibiotic D. Refer the client to urology. · Question 72 A patient has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder  (GAD). Which of the following medications may be used to treat generalized  anxiety disorder? · Question 73 A positive drawer sign supports a diagnosis of: · Question 74 Sam, age 67, is a diabetic with worsening renal function.  He has frequent hypoglycemic episodes, which he believes means that his  diabetes is getting “better.” How do you respond? · · Question 75 A 14 year old female cheerleader reports gradual and  progressive dull anterior knee pain, exacerbated by kneeling. The nurse  practitioner notes swelling and point tenderness at the tibial tuberosity.  X-ray is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis? · Question 76 A 35 year old male presents with a complaint of low  pelvic pain, dysuria, hesitancy, urgency, and reduced force of stream. The  nurse practitioner suspects acute bacterial prostatitis. Which of the  following specimens would be least helpful for diagnosis? · Question 77 Jack, age 55, comes to the office with a blood pressure of  144/98 mm Hg. He states that he did not know if it was ever elevated before.  When you retake his blood pressure at the end of the exam, it remains at  144/98. What should your next action be? · Question 78 A patient has just been diagnosed with Bell’s palsy. He is  understandably upset and has questions about the prognosis. You response  should be: · · Question 79 Martin is complaining of erectile dysfunction. He also has  a condition that has reduced arterial blood flow to his penis. The most  common cause of this condition is: · Question 80 Successful management of a patient with attention deficit hyperactivity  disorder (ADHD) may be achieved with: · Question 81 What diabetic complications result from hyperglycemia? 1. 1. 1. Retinopathy 2. Hypertension  resistant to treatment 3. Peripheral  neuropathy 4. Accelerated  atherogenesis · Question 82 · Question 83 The most common symptoms of transient ischemic attack  (TIA) include: · Question 84 What is the first step in the treatment of uric acid  kidney stones? · Question 85 Establishment of a definitive diagnosis of osteomyelitis  requires: · Question 86 Which of the following is the most common causative  organism of nongonococcal urethritis? A. Chlamydia  trachomatis B. Ureaplasma  urealyticum C. Mycoplasma  hominis D. Trichonomas  vaginalis · Question 87 Urine cultures should be obtained for which of the  following patients? · · Question 88 A 30 year old female patient presents to the clinic with  heat intolerance, tremors, nervousness, and weight loss inconsistent with  increased appetite. Which test would be most likely to confirm the suspected  diagnosis? · Question 89 A patient has been diagnosed with  hypothyroidism and thyroid hormone replacement therapy is prescribed. How  long should the nurse practitioner wait before checking the patient’s TSH? · Question 90 Potential causes of hypocalcemia include which of the  following? · Question 91 Which of the following patients most warrants screening  for hypothyroidism? · Question 92 Which of the following is a contraindication for metformin  therapy? · Question 93 The organism most often associated with prostatitis is: A. Klebsiella B. Neiserria  gonorrhoaes C. Chlamydia  trachomatis D. Escherichia  coli · Question 94 The most effective intervention(s)  to prevent stroke is (are): · Question 95 What is the most commonly abused substance? · Question 96 The hallmark of neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen’s  disease) present in almost 100% of patients is: · Question 97 Diagnostic evaluation of  hypothyroidism reveals: · Question 98 An obese hyperlipidemic patient, newly diagnosed with type  2 diabetes mellitus, has fasting glucose values 180 to 250 mg/Dl. What is the  most appropriate initial treatment to consider? A. A  low-calorie diet and exercise B. Sliding-scale NPH insulin every 12 hours C. A sulfonylurea and/or metformin (Glucophage® -XR) D. Sliding-scale regular insulin every 6 hours · Question 99 The correct treatment for ankle sprain during the first 48  hours after injury includes: · Question 100 Prolonged PT suggests: A. Platelet abnormality B. Abnormality in intrinsic  coagulation pathway C. Abnormality in extrinsic  coagulation pathway D. None of the above Question 101 · A patient presenting for an annual physical exam has a BMI of 25 kg/m2 This patient would be classified as: · Question 102 The most reliable indicator(s) of neurological deficit  when assessing a patient with acute low back pain is(are): · Question 103 Risk factors for Addison’s disease  include which of the following? · Question 104 Major depression occurs most often  in which of the following conditions? · Question 105 Which of the following medications increase the risk for  metabolic syndrome? · Question 106 A 27 year old female patient with epilepsy is well  controlled with phenytoin (Dilantin). She requests information about  contraception. The nurse practitioner should instruct her that while taking  phenytoin: · Question 107 Risk factors for prostate cancer include all of the  following except: · Question 108 Maria, age 17, was raped when she was 13 year old. She is  now experiencing sleeping problems, flashbacks, and depression. What is your  initial diagnosis?Post-traumatic stress disorder NURS 6531 Final Exam / NURS6531 Final Exam (Latest): Walden University Walden NURS 6531 Final Exam / Walden NURS6531 Final Exam (Latest) · Question 1 When  completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct  including the expectations for academic integrity? · Question 2 Central obesity, “moon” face, and dorsocervical fat pad  are associated with: A. Metabolic  syndrome B. Unilateral  pheochromocytoma C. Cushing’s  syndrome D. None  of the above · Question 3 An elderly man is started on lisinopril and  hydrochlorhiazide for hypertension. Three days later, he returns to the  office complaining of left great toe pain. On exam, the nurse practitioner  notes an edematous, erythematous tender left great toe. The likely  precipitant of this patient’s pain is: A. Trauma B. Tight  shoes C. Arthritis  flare D. Hydrochlorothiazide · Question 4 The most effective treatment of non-infectious bursitis  includes: · Question 5 What conditions must be met for you to bill “incident to”  the physician, receiving 100% reimbursement from Medicare? Answers: You must initiate the plan  of care for the patient The physician must be  on-site and engaged in patient care You must be employed as an  independent contractor You must be the main health  care provider who sees the patient · Question 6 Which of the following is not a risk factor associated  with the development of syndrome X and type 2 diabetes mellitus? · Question 7 Which of the following is not a common early sign of  benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? A.  Nocturia B. Urgency incontinence C. Strong urinary stream flow D. Straining to void · Question 8 Steve, age 69, has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).  When teaching him how to reduce his lower esophageal sphincter pressure,  which substances do you recommend that he avoid? § Food that is very hot or very cold § Fatty or fried foods § Peppermint or spearmint, including flavoring § Coffee, tea, and soft drinks that contain caffeine § Spicy, highly seasoned foods § Fried foodDT caffeine, chocolate and anticholinergics · Question 9 Which drug category contains the drugs that are the first  line Gold standard therapy for COPD? · Question 10 The most commonly recommended pharmacological treatment  regimen for low back pain (LBP) is: · Question 11 Which of the following is not appropriate suppression  therapy for chronic bacterial prostatitis? · Question 12 A patient presents with dehydration, hypotension, and  fever. Laboratory testing reveals hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and  hypoglycemia. These imbalances are corrected, but the patient returns 6 weeks  later with the same symptoms of hyperpigmentation, weakness, anorexia,  fatigue, and weight loss. What action(s) should the nurse practitioner take? .A Obtain a  thorough history and physical, and check serum cortisol and ACTH levels. B. Perform a diet history and check CBC and FBS. C. Provide nutritional guidance and have the patient return in one month. D. Consult home health for intravenous administration · Question 13 The nurse practitioner diagnoses epididymitis in a 24 year old sexually active male patient. The drug of choice for treatment of this patient is: · Question 14 How do you respond when Jessica, age 42, asks you what constitutes a good minimum cardiovascular workout? · Question 15 The intervention known to be most effective in the  treatment of severe depression, with or without psychosis, is: · Question 16 You are assessing a patient after a sports injury to his  right knee. You elicit a positive anterior/posterior drawer sign. This test  indicates an injury to the: he A. lateral meniscus B. cruciate ligament C. medial meniscus D. collateral ligament. · Question 17 A 32 year old female patient presents with fever, chills,  right flank pain, right costovertebral angle tenderness, and hematuria. Her  urinalysis is positive for leukocytes and red blood cells. The nurse  practitioner diagnoses pyelonephritis. The most appropriate management is: · Question 18 A 21-year-old female presents to the office  complaining of urinary frequency and urinary burning. The nurse practitioner  suspects a urinary tract infection when the urinalysis reveals · Question 19 A middle-aged man presents to urgent care complaining of  pain of the medial condyle of the lower humerus. The man works as a carpenter  and describes a gradual onset of pain. On exam, the medial epicondyle is  tender and pain is increased with flexion and pronation. Range of motion is  full The most likely cause of this patient’s pain is: · Question 20 The initial clinical sign of Dupuytren’s contracture is: · · Question 21 The best test to determine microalbuminuria to assist in  the diagnosis of diabetic neuropathy · Question 22 What is the first symptom seen in the majority of patients  with Parkinson’s disease? · Question 23 The most commonly recommended method for prostate cancer  screening in a 55 year old male is: · Question 24 Martin, age 24, presents with an erythematous ear canal,  pain, and a recent history of swimming. What do you suspect? · Question 25 Which of  the following symptoms suggests a more serious cause of back pain? · Question 26 Josh, age 22, is a stock boy and has an acute episode of  low back pain. You order and NSAID and tell him which of the following? · Question 27 A 72 year old female patient reports a 6 month  history of gradually progressive swollen and painful distal interphalangeal  (DIP) joints of one hand. She has no systemic symptoms but the erythrocyte  sedimentation rate (ESR), antinuclear antibody (ANA), and rheumatoid factor  (RF) are all minimally elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis? · Question 28 A patient taking levothyroxine is being  over-replaced. What condition is he at risk for? · Question 29 Which of the following is the most common cause of low  back pain? A. Lumbar  disc disease B. Spinal  stenosis C. Traumatic  fracture D. Osteoporosis · Question 30 Which is the most common cause of end-stage renal disease  in the United States? · Question 31 A 77-year-old female presents to the office complaining a  sudden swelling on her right elbow. She denies fever, chills, trauma, or  pain. The physical exam reveals a non-tender area of swelling over the  extensor surface over the right elbow with evidence of trauma or irritation.  The nurse practitioner suspects: A. Arthritis B. Ulnar  neuritis C. Septic  arthritis D. Olecranon  bursitis · Question 32 A 60 year old female patient complains of sudden onset  unilateral, stabbing, surface pain in the lower part of her face lasting a  few minutes, subsiding, and then returning. The pain is triggered by touch or  temperature extremes. Physical examination is normal. Which of the following  is the most likely diagnosis? · Question 33 Beth, age 49, comes in with low back pain. An x-ray of the  lumbosacral spine is within normal limits. Which of the following diagnoses  do you explore further? · Question 34 A patient exhibits extrapyramidal side effects of  antipsychotic medications. Which of the following symptoms would lead you to  look for another diagnosis? · Question 35 Phalen’s test, 90°wrist flexion for 60 seconds, reproduces  symptoms of: · Question 36 Jennifer says that she has heard that caffeine can cause  osteoporosis and asks you why. How do you respond? · Question 37 The most common cause of elevated liver function tests is: · Question 38 Reed-Sternberg B lymphocytes are associated with which of  the following disorders: A. Aplastic anemia B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma C. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma D. Myelodysplastic syndromes · Question 39 Which of the following is a potential acquired cause of  thrombophilia? A. Homocysteinuria B. Protein C deficiency C. Factor V Leiden D. Antiphospholipid antibodies · Question 41 A 75-year-old female is diagnosed with primary  hyperparathyroidism and asks the nurse practitioner what the treatment for  this disorder is. The nurse practitioner explains: Primary  hyperparathyroidism is treated with Vitamin D restriction Primary  hyperparathyroidism is treated with parathyroidectomy Primary  hyperparathyroidism is treated with daily magnesium Primary  hyperparathyroidism is treated with parenteral parathyroid hormone (PTH) · Question 42 Diagnostic confirmation of acute leukemia is based on: · · Question 43 A 25 year old overweight patient presents with a  complaint of dull achiness in his groin and history of a palpable lump in his  scrotum that “comes and goes”. On physical examination, the nurse  practitioner does not detect a scrotal mass. There is no tenderness, edema,  or erythema of the scrotum, the scrotum does not transilluminate. What is the  most likely diagnosis? A. Testicular  torsion B. Epididymitis C. Inguinal hernia D. Varicocele · Question 44 Dave, age 38, states that he thinks he has an ear  infection because he just flew back from a business trip and feels unusual  pressure in his ear. You diagnose barotrauma. What is your next action? A. Prescribe nasal steroids and oral decongestants B. Prescribe antibiotic eardrops C. Prescribe systemic eardrops D. Refer David to an ear, nose, and throat specialist · Question 45 Which of the following antibiotics should not be  prescribed for a pregnant woman in the 3rd trimester? · Question 46 The physiological explanation of syncope is: · Question 47 A 20 year old male patient complains of “scrotal  swelling.” He states his scrotum feels heavy, but denies pain. On  examination, the nurse practitioner notes transillumination of the scrotum.  What is the most likely diagnosis? · Question 48 A 32 year old male patient complains of urinary  frequency and burning on urination for 3 days. Urinalysis reveals  bacteriuria. He denies any past history of urinary tract infection. The  initial treatment should be: nclude nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals,  trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), or fosfomycin. · Question 49 Diagnostic radiological studies are indicated for low back  pain: · Question 50 Who is at a higher risk for developing nephrolithiasis? · · Question 51 An 81-year-old female is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.  When considering drug therapy for this patient, the nurse practitioner is  most concerned with which of the following side effects? A. Weight  gain B. Fracture  risk C. Hypoglycemia D. Weight  loss · Question 52 A 28-year-old female presents to the office requesting  testing for diagnosis of hereditary thrombophilia. Her father recently had a  deep vein thrombosis and she is concerned about her risk factors. The nurse  practitioner explains that: · Question 53 The diagnosis of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection in  males is usually made by: · Question 54 Which history is commonly found in a patient with  glomerulonephritis? · Question 55 A  patient complains of generalized joint pain and stiffness associated with  activity and relieved with rest. This patient history is consistent with  which of the following disorders? · Question 56 The most common presentation of thyroid cancer is: · Question 57 The obligatory criteria for diagnosis of muscular  dystrophy (MD) are: · Question 58 The diagnosis which must be considered in a patient who  presents with a severe headache of sudden onset, with neck stiffness and  fever, is: · Question 59 A 60 year old male patient with multiple health  problems presents with a complaint of erectile dysfunction (ED). Of the  following, which medication is most likely to be causing the problem? · Question 60 A 72 year old patient exhibits sudden onset of fluctuating  restlessness, agitation, confusion, and impaired attention. This is  accompanied by visual hallucinations and sleep disturbance. What is the most  likely cause of this behavior? A. Dementia C. Parkinson’s disease D. Depression · Question 61 Which of the following set of symptoms should raise  suspicion of a brain tumor? · Question 62 The cornerstone of treatment for  stress fracture of the femur or metatarsal stress fracture is: · Question 63 Sally, a computer programmer, has just been given a new diagnosis  of carpal tunnel syndrome. Your next step is to: · Question 64 Marsha presents with symptoms resembling both fibromyalgia  and chronic fatigue syndrome, which have many similarities. Which of the  following is more characteristic of fibromyalgia? A.  Musculosckeletal pain B. Difficulty sleeping C. Depression D. Fatigue · Question 65 The cardinal sign of infectious arthritis is: · Question 66 Diagnostic evaluation for urinary calculi includes: · Question 67 Martin, a 58 year old male with diabetes, is at your  office for his diabetes follow up. On examining his feet with monofilament,  you discover that he has developed decreased sensation in both feet. There are  no open areas or signs of infection on his feet. What health teaching should  Martin receive today regarding the care if his feet? See a  podiatrist yearly; wash your feet daily with warm, soapy water and towel dry between the toes; inspect your feet daily for any lesions; and apply lotion to any dry areas. · Question 68 Potential causes of septic  arthritis include which of the following? · Question 69 Which of the following is the best response to a woman who  has just admitted she is a victim of spousal abuse? · Question 70 A 15 year-old female patient is 5 feet tall and weighs 85  pounds. You suspect anorexia and know that the best initial approach is to: Having  the client in view of staff for 90 minutes after each meal · Question 71 A 63-year-old man presents to the office with hematuria,  hesitancy, and dribbling. Digital rectal exam (DRE) reveals a moderately  enlarged prostate that is smooth. The PSA is 1.2. What is the most  appropriate management strategy for you to follow at this time? A. Prescribe  an alpha adrenergic blocker. B. Recommend saw palmetto. C. Prescribe an antibiotic D. Refer the client to urology. · Question 72 A patient has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder  (GAD). Which of the following medications may be used to treat generalized  anxiety disorder? · Question 73 A positive drawer sign supports a diagnosis of: · Question 74 Sam, age 67, is a diabetic with worsening renal function.  He has frequent hypoglycemic episodes, which he believes means that his  diabetes is getting “better.” How do you respond? · · Question 75 A 14 year old female cheerleader reports gradual and  progressive dull anterior knee pain, exacerbated by kneeling. The nurse  practitioner notes swelling and point tenderness at the tibial tuberosity.  X-ray is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis? · Question 76 A 35 year old male presents with a complaint of low  pelvic pain, dysuria, hesitancy, urgency, and reduced force of stream. The  nurse practitioner suspects acute bacterial prostatitis. Which of the  following specimens would be least helpful for diagnosis? · Question 77 Jack, age 55, comes to the office with a blood pressure of  144/98 mm Hg. He states that he did not know if it was ever elevated before.  When you retake his blood pressure at the end of the exam, it remains at  144/98. What should your next action be? · Question 78 A patient has just been diagnosed with Bell’s palsy. He is  understandably upset and has questions about the prognosis. You response  should be: · · Question 79 Martin is complaining of erectile dysfunction. He also has  a condition that has reduced arterial blood flow to his penis. The most  common cause of this condition is: · Question 80 Successful management of a patient with attention deficit hyperactivity  disorder (ADHD) may be achieved with: · Question 81 What diabetic complications result from hyperglycemia? 1. 1. 1. Retinopathy 2. Hypertension  resistant to treatment 3. Peripheral  neuropathy 4. Accelerated  atherogenesis · Question 82 · Question 83 The most common symptoms of transient ischemic attack  (TIA) include: · Question 84 What is the first step in the treatment of uric acid  kidney stones? · Question 85 Establishment of a definitive diagnosis of osteomyelitis  requires: · Question 86 Which of the following is the most common causative  organism of nongonococcal urethritis? A. Chlamydia  trachomatis B. Ureaplasma  urealyticum C. Mycoplasma  hominis D. Trichonomas  vaginalis · Question 87 Urine cultures should be obtained for which of the  following patients? · · Question 88 A 30 year old female patient presents to the clinic with  heat intolerance, tremors, nervousness, and weight loss inconsistent with  increased appetite. Which test would be most likely to confirm the suspected  diagnosis? · Question 89 A patient has been diagnosed with  hypothyroidism and thyroid hormone replacement therapy is prescribed. How  long should the nurse practitioner wait before checking the patient’s TSH? · Question 90 Potential causes of hypocalcemia include which of the  following? · Question 91 Which of the following patients most warrants screening  for hypothyroidism? · Question 92 Which of the following is a contraindication for metformin  therapy? · Question 93 The organism most often associated with prostatitis is: A. Klebsiella B. Neiserria  gonorrhoaes C. Chlamydia  trachomatis D. Escherichia  coli · Question 94 The most effective intervention(s)  to prevent stroke is (are): · Question 95 What is the most commonly abused substance? · Question 96 The hallmark of neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen’s  disease) present in almost 100% of patients is: · Question 97 Diagnostic evaluation of  hypothyroidism reveals: · Question 98 An obese hyperlipidemic patient, newly diagnosed with type  2 diabetes mellitus, has fasting glucose values 180 to 250 mg/Dl. What is the  most appropriate initial treatment to consider? A. A  low-calorie diet and exercise B. Sliding-scale NPH insulin every 12 hours C. A sulfonylurea and/or metformin (Glucophage® -XR) D. Sliding-scale regular insulin every 6 hours · Question 99 The correct treatment for ankle sprain during the first 48  hours after injury includes: · Question 100 Prolonged PT suggests: A. Platelet abnormality B. Abnormality in intrinsic  coagulation pathway C. Abnormality in extrinsic  coagulation pathway D. None of the above Question 101 · A patient presenting for an annual physical exam has a BMI of 25 kg/m2 This patient would be classified as: · Question 102 The most reliable indicator(s) of neurological deficit  when assessing a patient with acute low back pain is(are): · Question 103 Risk factors for Addison’s disease  include which of the following? · Question 104 Major depression occurs most often  in which of the following conditions? · Question 105 Which of the following medications increase the risk for  metabolic syndrome? · Question 106 A 27 year old female patient with epilepsy is well  controlled with phenytoin (Dilantin). She requests information about  contraception. The nurse practitioner should instruct her that while taking  phenytoin: · Question 107 Risk factors for prostate cancer include all of the  following except: · Question 108 Maria, age 17, was raped when she was 13 year old. She is  now experiencing sleeping problems, flashbacks, and depression. What is your  initial diagnosis?Post-traumatic stress disorder

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2025 Community Assessment and Analysis Presentation This assignment consists of both an interview and a PowerPoint

Community Assessment and Analysis Presentation: Interview and PPT 2025

Community Assessment and Analysis Presentation: This assignment consists of both an interview and a PowerPoint (PPT) presentation. Assessment/Interview: Select a community of interest in your region. (ANY IS OK YOUR CHOICE) Perform a physical assessment of the community. Perform a direct assessment of a community of interest using the “Functional Health Patterns Community Assessment Guide.” (A FORM I WILL PROVIDE WITH QUESTIONS) Interview a community health and public health provider regarding that person’s role and experiences within the community. (NOT IN RL) Interview Guidelines: Develop interview questions to gather information about the role of the provider in the community and the health issues faced by the chosen community. Compile key findings from the interview, including the interview questions used, and submit these with the presentation. PowerPoint Presentation: Create a PowerPoint presentation of 15-20 slides (slide count does not include title and references slide) describing the chosen community interest. Include the following in your presentation: Description of community and community boundaries: the people and the geographic, geopolitical, financial, educational level; ethnic and phenomenological features of the community, as well as types of social interactions; common goals and interests; and barriers, and challenges, including any identified social determinates of health. Summary of community assessment: (a) funding sources and (b) partnerships. Summary of interview with community health/public health provider. Identification of an issue that is lacking or an opportunity for health promotion. A conclusion summarizing your key findings and a discussion of your impressions of the general health of the community.

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2025 You as the advanced practice nurse are working in a community health center Your next patient is Mrs Richards a 39 year old

Case Study Nursing Theory MSN FNP 2025

You as the advanced practice nurse are working in a community health center. Your next patient is Mrs. Richards, a 39 year-old Caucasian female, presenting to the clinic with a history of Hypothyroidism, Depression, and recent history of Substance Abuse (Heroine Use). During the initial interview, it is revealed that her husband and two children were killed in a traffic accident 8 months ago and she reports using illicit drugs since their death. Based on your knowledge of the Health Promotion Model, make a chart and/or diagram that outlines all components of the theory and how the theory can be applied to this case study to formulate a plan of care for this patient. Also, list one scholarly, practice-based resource (article and/or clinical guideline) that supports the application of the Health Promotion Model in clinical practice. please see model attached. http://www.nursing-theory.org/theories-and-models/pender-health-promotion-model.php

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2025 Write a 2 3 page paper that examines the moral and ethical considerations of organ conscription policies and

Ethics Assessment 4: Robbing the Dead: Is Organ Conscription Ethical? 2025

Write a 2-3 page paper that examines the moral and ethical considerations of organ conscription policies and theories. Scarcity of Medical Resources For this assessment, you will continue your survey of ethical principles in health care. Especially in our contemporary world, where needs for health care outstrip available resources, we regularly face decisions about who should get which resources. There is a serious shortage of donor organs. Need vastly outstrips supply, due not only to medical advances related to organ transplantation, but also because not enough people consent to be cadaveric donors (an organ donor who has already died). Munson (2014) points out that in the United States, approximately 10,000 patients die each year because an organ donor was not available, which is three times the number of people killed in the terrorist attacks on 9/11. But what is an efficient and morally sound solution to this problem? The policy of presumed consent, where enacted, has scarcely increased supply, and other alternatives, such as allowing donors to sell their organs, raise strong moral objections. In light of this, some have advocated for a policy of conscription of cadaveric organs (Spital & Erin, 2002). This involves removing organs from the recently deceased without first obtaining consent of the donor or his or her family. Proponents of this policy argue that conscription would not only vastly increase the number of available organs, and hence save many lives, but that it is also more efficient and less costly than policies requiring prior consent. Finally, because with a conscription policy all people would share the burden of providing organs after death and all would stand to benefit should the need arise, the policy is fair and just. Demonstration of Proficiency By successfully completing this assessment, you will demonstrate your proficiency in the following course competencies and scoring guide criteria: Competency 1: Articulate ethical issues in health care. Articulate the moral concerns surrounding a policy of organ conscription. Articulate questions about the fairness and justness of organ conscription policy. Explain the relevance and significance of the concept of consent as it pertains to organ donation. Evaluate alternative policies for increasing available donor organs. Competency 5: Communicate in a manner that is scholarly, professional, and respectful of the diversity, dignity, and integrity of others and is consistent with health care professionals. Exhibit proficiency in clear and effective academic writing skills. References Munson, R. (2014). Intervention and reflection: Basic issues in bioethics (concise ed.). Boston, MA: Wadsworth. Spital, A., & Erin, C. (2002). Conscription of cadaveric organs for transplantation: Let’s at least talk about it. American Journal of Kidney Disease, 39 (3), 611–615. Instructions Do you consider the policy of organ conscription to be morally sound? Write a paper that answers this question, defending that answer with cogent moral reasoning and supporting your view with ethical theories or moral principles you take to be most relevant to the issue. In addition to reviewing the suggested resources, you are encouraged to locate additional resources in the school library, your public library, or authoritative online sites to provide additional support for your viewpoint. Be sure to weave and cite the resources throughout your work. In your paper, address the following: On what grounds could one argue that consent is not ethically required for conscription of cadaveric organs? And on what grounds could one argue that consent is required? Is the policy truly just and fair, as supporters claim? Explain. Do you consider one of the alternative policies for increasing available donor organs that Munson discusses to be preferable to conscription? Explain why or why not. Submission Requirements Written communication: Written communication is free of errors that detract from the overall message. APA formatting: Resources and citations are formatted according to current APA style and formatting guidelines. Length: 2–3 typed, double-spaced pages. Font and font size: Times New Roman, 12 point.

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2025 Sustaining change can be difficult as there are many variables that can affect implementation One critical component of EBP is

Sustaining change can be difficult, as there are many variables that can affect implementation 2025

Sustaining change can be difficult, as there are many variables that can affect implementation. One critical component of EBP is to ensure that practice change is part of an organization’s culture so it will continue to impact outcomes over time. Name two potential barriers that may prevent your EBP change proposal from continuing to obtain the same desired results 6 months to a year from now, and your strategies for overcoming these barriers.

Nursing Assignment Help 2025