2025 The nurse cares for a toddler diagnosed with immune thrombocytopenia purport The child s platelet count is 52 000 mm

2020 NURSING Kaplan Exit Exam questions 2025

The nurse cares for a toddler diagnosed with immune thrombocytopenia purport. The child’s platelet count is 52,000/mm (52 x 10). The nurse prepares a care plan for the child. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for this child? Fatigue related to elevated platelet count. Risk for injury related to low platelet count. Risk for activity intolerance related to need for rest. Impaired Physical mobility related to need for physical therapy. 2. The client takes heparin 12, 000 units daily by subcutaneous injection. Today’s aPTT level is 45 seconds. Which action does the nurse take first? Nothing as this is a normal a PTT level Notifies the health care provider to decrease the dosage. Changes the route from subcutaneous to intramuscular. Notifies the health care provider to increase the dosage. 3. The client is the single parent of the 2 week old baby, the firstborn child. The client had considered terminating the pregnancy but continued the pregnancy. There is little client family support. The client has a history of an editing disorder. The nurse knows which nursing diagnosis is most important for the client? Risk for impaired attachment related to lack of knowledge of child care. Situational Low Self-Esteem related to body changes of childbirth. Risk for ineffective coping related to postpartum depression. Disturbed sleep Pattern related to care of infant at night. 4.A nurse provides care for the newborn in the delivery area. The baby is breathing and crying well with good color. The nurse knows which priority is next? Prevent cold stress. Record Apgar. Initiate physical assessment. Begin bonding with parents. 5. The nurse care for the adolescent diagnosed with acquired aplastic anemia. The diagnosis is related to the practice of huffing substances with benzene. Which goal is the most important for this client during immunosuppression? Will have increased production of red blood cells. Will manage pain related to growth factor injections. Will cope with probability of death from disease. Will verbalize feelings about lack of bone marrow donor. 6. The nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Prioritize the order of steps.. From start to finish. All options must be used. Unordered options Lubricate tip of the catheter. Drape the client Insert the catheter Put on sterile gloves Cleanse the meatus 7.The nurse assesses the position of the fetus at the beginning of labor. The nurse feels the fetal occiput toward the left side of the pregnant clients sacrum. How does the nurse interpret thus finding? Right occiput anterior (ROA); fetus is currently in correct position for birth. Left sacrum anterior (LSA); fetus will need to flip end to end prior to birth. Left occiput transverse (LOT); fetus will turn head slightly prior to birth. Left occiput posterior (LOP); fetus will need to burn head prior to birth. 8. A client diagnosed with infective endocarditis is discharged home on IV antibiotic therapy. The nurse knows the client understands the discharge treatment plan when the client makes which statement? “when I get home, I can take of these compression stockings when I am walking.” “I can help care for my grandchildren when they are sick and stay home from school” “I can go back to my job next week and start back traveling” “I will tell my dentist about this illness before having my teeth cleaned.” 9. The client sustained a right hip fracture. The client had surgery to repair the hip. The nurse prepares for the client to return from surgery to the surgical unit. Which equipment is out important for the nurse to have available? Sandbags and pillows Walker and wheelchair Elevated toilet seat Continuous passive motion machine. 10. The nurse care for the 4 year old child. The parents report the child is irritable and has lost weight. The nurse assesses the child and discovers an irregular heart rate at 18- beats per minute and rest at 24 per min. Which does the nurse do first? Assesses the Childs temperature Notifies the health care provider Tells the parent the child has a heart disorder Asks the child if there is any chest pain 11. The nurse care for a client with as kin rash. The client scratches the rash and the skin starts to bleed. The nurse includes which nursing diagnosis in the clients plan of care? Ineffective health maintenance. Impaired skin integrity Impaired tissue integrity Risk for bleeding 12. A nurse in the clinic performs a pregnancy test and tells the couple they are pregnant. They are both excited and appear happy. At the next clinic visit, the client tells the nurse the partner is quiet and withdrawn although seeming initially happy at the news. Which is the best response by the nurse? When the pregnancy is more obvious, the partner will feel better. The changes in their life may be causing the partner anxiety The clients should be less enthusiastic around the partner The partner should seek psychiatric help for depression. 13. The Hospitalized client is scheduled for a paracentesis because of ascites. The nurse identifies which client goal related to the procedure? Client will have pain reduced from 10 to 8 Client will ave increased peripheral perfusion Client will understand reasons for the medication. Client will have bowel function return to normal. 14. A client reports indigestion that is not relieved with antacids. The client appears pale and ashen and the skin is cool and clammy. Which additional assessment data does the anticipate? (Select all that apply) Temperature above 102 F (38.9 C) Dyspnea Constipation and abdominal pain Extreme thirst and hunger Chest tightness Pain in the left arm and back 15. A client is 30 weeks pregnant. The delivery will be by cessarean birth due to a breech presentation. Which information does the nurse give the client regarding the delivery? (Select all that apply) Will have an IV started in the preoperative area. Will plan for epidural anesthesia Wil be given medication to relax prior to surgery Will have a full bowel prep Will be admitted the night before surgery Will have an indwelling urinary catheter inserted 16. The nurse obtains a specimen for arterial blood gasses from a client. Which principles guides the nurse? May use peripheral IV site if no IV fluids present Continuous intra arterial monitoring is required Air in the syringe will after the blood values Clotted blood will reserve the blood gas values 17. The client takes rifampin and isoniazid for turberculosis. The nurse knows the client understands the teaching about rifampin when which client statement is made? My urine may change color and become bluish.” “Because I have kidney disease, my dose is less than my spouse’s.” “I will need to have liver test done every week.” “I will take my medication 1 hour before I eat.” 18. A parent brings an infant client to the emergency department after the infant fell out of the high chair. The nurse assess the infant for a head injury. Which assessment data indicates the infant needs further testing? (select all that apply) Blurred vision Difficult to arouse from sleep Severe headache Difficulty speaking Bulging anterior fontanel Right eye pupil dilated 19. A psychiatrist nurse cares several clients with personally disorders. The nurse recognizes that clients diagnosed with narcissistic personality disorder exhibit which characteristic? (Select all that apply.) Exploitative habaviors Self-multilating behaviors Grandiosity Preoccupation with orderliness Hypersensitivity to criticism Attention seeking behavior. 20. The nurse presents a Program on Lyme disease. The nurse determines teaching is needed when a child makes which statement? “I will make sure I get the vaccination for lyme disease this spring” “if I get a tick bite, I will watch for a bullseye rash for up to 30 days”. “my dog has a new flea and tick collar, and I will check for ticks very day”. Insect repellent with DEET will help keep ticks from biting me”. 21. A client diagnosed with psoriasis is treated with etanercept. The nurse knows the client understands the disease and treatment when the client makes which statement. “I will stop the medication when I no longer have any symptoms.” “I Can apply this medication will cure the psoriasis.” “I am so glad this medication will cure the psoriasis”. “I will take this medication until I come to the clinic again” 22. The Nurse cares for the 13 year old child diagnosed with vesicoureteral reflux secondary to strictures caused by repeated bladder infections. The child receives continuous low dose antibiotics. The nurse assesses the compliance of treatment. Which questions does the nurse ask the child? (Select all that apply) “How much fluid do you drink each day” Are you active in any sports?” “how much sleep do you get at night?” “When do you take your medications”? “What foods do you like best and eat often?” “How often do you void during the day? 23. A client had a myocardial infarction. The nurse teaches the client to seek immediate treatment for which symptoms? (select all that apply) Shortness of breath with cough and nasal drainage. Jaw pain with dyspnea and dizziness. Heave its photophobia Chest pain with nausea and vommiting Abdominal pain with constipation Chest heaviness with pressure

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2025 The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act PPACA was passed into legislation in March of 2010

The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA) 2025

The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA) was passed into legislation in March of 2010. Identify the impact of this legislation on your nursing practice by choosing two key nursing provisions outlined in the topic material “Nursing and Health Reform.” Discuss how these two provisions have impacted, or will impact, your current practice of nursing. Nursing and Health Reform The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA) was signed into law by President Obama on March 23, 2010. This law will enact sweeping changes to almost every facet of the health care system over the next ten years. The law makes changes that will impact providers, insurers, consumers, Medicare & Medicaid, and payment policies. For the purposes of this document we wanted to provide readers with an overview of those provisions in the new law that will impact the nursing community as well as their facilities. This article is intended to provide an overview of those sections of the law most relevant to WOCN members. The information focuses on three main aspects of the law: nursing workforce provisions, payment reform provisions, and facility specific provisions. Each provision is given a brief summary and policy goal of the language contained in the law. Readers can find the full legislative language for each section here: http://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/PLAW111publ148/html/PLAW-111publ148.htm Nursing Workforce Provisions Policy makers recognized the need for an increased workforce to care for the millions of consumers who would be added to the ranks of the insured under PPACA. This — in conjunction with an already existing workforce shortage within the nursing community — led to a number of provisions designed to increase the number of nurses in the coming years. Those provisions are as follows: Section 5202 Nursing student loan program—Updates the loan amounts for the Nursing Student Loan program and after 2012 the Secretary (of the Department of Health and Human Services) has discretion to adjust this amount based on cost of attendance increases. Section 5203 Health care workforce loan repayment programs—Establishes a loan repayment program for individuals who are willing to practice in a pediatric medical or surgical subspecialty or in a child mental or behavioral health care for at least 2 years in an underserved area. Recipients, which include psychiatric nurses, social workers, and professional/school counselors, are eligible to receive $35,000/year in loan repayments for participation in an accredited pediatric specialty residency or fellowship. HHS is to give priority to applicants who are or will be working in a school setting, have familiarity with evidence-based healthcare, and can demonstrate financial need. Section 5204 Public health workforce recruitment and retention programs—Establishes Public Health Workforce Loan Repayment Program to assure an adequate supply of public health professionals to eliminate workforce shortages in public health agencies. HHS will repay up to 1/3 of loans incurred by a public health or health professions student in exchange for an agreement to accept employment with a public health agency for at least three years. Those serving in priority service areas may qualify for additional loan repayment incentives at department’s discretion. Section 5205 Allied health workforce recruitment and retention programs—Authorizes an Allied Health Loan Forgiveness Program to assure there is an adequate supply of allied health professionals to eliminate workforce shortages at public health agencies, acute care facilities, ambulatory care facilities, and other underserved health facilities. Section 5206 Grants for State and local programs—Authorizes HHS to make grants to accredited educational institutions that support scholarships for mid-career public health and allied health professionals who seek additional training in their respective fields. Section 5207 Funding for National Health Service Corps—Increasing funding for National Health Service Corps (NHSC) and extends authorization of appropriations for the Corps thru 2015. For FY2016 and beyond, a formula for funding is established to tie increased costs in healthcare to the number of individuals residing in health professions shortage areas. Section 5209 Elimination of cap on commissioned corps—Removes cap of 2800 commissioned officers in National Health Services Corps regular corps. Section 5210 Establishing a Ready Reserve Corps—Reconstitutes the Public Health Service Corps into the commissioned Regular Corps and a Ready Reserve Corps for service in time of national emergencies. Section 5301 Training in family medicine, general internal medicine, general pediatrics, and physician assistantship—Establishes a grant program for hospitals, medical schools, academically and affiliated PA training programs to develop and operate accredited training programs for the provision of primary care. Section 5302 Training opportunities for direct care workers—Establishes a 3 year grant program under which an institution of higher education can subsidize training of individuals at that institution who are willing to serve as direct care workers in a long-term or chronic care setting for at least two years after completion of their training. Section 5305 Geriatric education and training; career awards; comprehensive geriatric education—Authorizes HHS to award grants to advanced practice nurses who are pursuing a doctorate or other advanced degree in geriatrics and who, as a condition of accepting a grant, will agree to teach or practice in the field of geriatrics, long-term care, or chronic care management for a minimum of 5 years. Section 5309 Nurse education, practice, and retention grants—Adds 2 new grant programs specifically focused on nurse retention. One will authorize HHS to award grants to accredited nursing schools or health facilities to promote career advancement among nurses. The 2nd will permit HHS to make awards to nursing schools or health facilities that can demonstrate enhanced collaboration and communication among nurses and other health care professionals. Priority directed towards applicants that have not previously received an award. Section 5310 Loan repayment and scholarship program—Expands Nurse Loan Repayment and Scholarship Programs to provide loan repayment for students who serve for at least two years as a faculty member at an accredited nursing school. Section 5311 Nurse faculty loan program—Increases the Nurse Faculty Loan Program amounts from $30,000 to $35,000 in FY 2010 and FY 2011, declares that the amount of these loans will thereafter be adjusted to provide for cost-of-attendance increases for yearly loan rates and the aggregate loan. Creates new authority to permit HHS to enter into an agreement with individuals who hold unencumbered RNs and who have already completed, or are currently enrolled in, a master’s or doctorate training program for nursing. HHS will provide up to $10,000/year to master’s recipients and $20,000/year to those who earn a doctorate so long as these individuals spend at least 4 years out of a 6 year period as a full-time faculty member at an accredited nursing school. Section 5312 Authorization of appropriations for parts B through D of title VIII— Authorizes $338 million in appropriations to carry out nursing workforce development programs in FY 2010. FY 2011-2016 will be funded according to what HHS determines as “such sums as may be necessary” to carry out these programs. Section 5404 Workforce diversity grants—Expands the workforce diversity grant programs by permitting such grants to be used for diploma and associate degree nurses to enter bridge or degree completion programs or for student scholarships and stipend programs for accelerated nursing degree programs, This statute instructs HHS to consider recommendations from the National Advisory Council on Nurse Education and Practice and to consult with nursing associations. Section 5507 Demonstration projects to address health professions workforce needs; extension of family-to-family health information centers—Establishes a demonstration grant program to provide educational and training opportunities for low-income individuals for positions in the healthcare field that pay well and are expected to be in high demand. Program will primarily serve State TANF recipients, but HHS required to award at least 3 demonstration grants to eligible entities that are Indian Tribes, tribal organizations or Tribal colleges and Universities. Section 5509 Graduate nurse education demonstration—Appropriates $50 million/year FY 2012 thru FY 2015 to establish a graduate nurse education demonstration program in Medicare. Hospitals selected will be reimbursed for educational and clinical instruction costs attributed to training advanced practice nurses to provide primary/preventive care, translational care, chronic care management, as well as any other nursing services appropriate for the Medicare eligible population. Those hospitals selected will partner with community based care settings and accredited nursing schools to undertake the demonstration program and will reimburse partners for their share of costs. Section 10501—Permits faculty at public health schools that offer PA education programs to obtain faculty loan repayment under the workforce diversity program. Also makes other improvements to the NHSC program, such as a provision to increase the loan repayment amount, allowing half-time service and permitting teaching to count for as much as 20% of the service commitment to the NHSC. Pilot and Incentive Payment Program Provisions: In addition to policies aimed at increasing the number of nurses, policy makers also sought to more closely integrate nursing into new payment pilot programs that would offer incentives to primary and chronic care managements as well as provide alternatives to the current fee-forservice programs. Payment revisions are as follows: Section 2703 State option to provide health homes for enrollees with chronic conditions— Creates a state option under Medicaid to provide coordinated care through a “health home” for individuals afflicted with chronic conditions. States could receive 90 percent of the funding needed to support Medicaid enrollees who designate a provider or team of medical professionals as their health home through Federal Medical Assistance Percentages (FMAP). Section 3022 Medicare shared savings program—Establishes a shared savings program under which a group of providers and suppliers may form a legally structured Accountable Care Organization (ACO) to manage and coordinate care for Medicare fee for service beneficiaries. Section 3024 Independence at home demonstration program—Creates the Independence at Home demonstration program for chronically ill Medicare beneficiaries in order to test a payment incentive and service delivery system that would utilize physician and nurse practitioner directed, home-based primary care teams with the aim of reducing expenditures and improving health outcomes. Section 3501 Health care delivery system research; Quality improvement technical assistance—Establishes a Center for Quality Improvement and Patient Safety within the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ). This center will support the identification of best practices for quality improvement in the delivery of health care services by identifying healthcare providers that employ best practices and finding ways to translate these practices rapidly and effectively into practice elsewhere. The Center will establish a Quality Improvement Network Research Program to support research on healthcare delivery system improvement. The Director of AHRQ, under this section, will also be directed to award technical assistance grants to struggling healthcare providers to aid in the implementation and adoption of best practices identified by the Center. Section 3502 Establishing community health teams to support the patient- centered medical home—Authorizes HHS to establish a grant program for states/state designated entities to establish community-based interdisciplinary, interprofessional teams to support primary care practices within a certain area. Health teams must support patient-centered medical homes, defined as a mode of care that includes personal physicians, whole person orientation, coordinated and integrated care and evidence-informed medicine. Section 5208 Nurse-managed health clinics—Authorizes $50 million in grants for the cost of operation of Nurse-Managed Health Clinics (NHMC) that provide comprehensive primary care or wellness services without regard to income or insurance status of patients. NHMCs must provide care to underserved or vulnerable populations and be associated with an academic department of nursing, qualified health center or independent nonprofit health or social services agency. Also establishes a new program to support nurse-managed health centers, authorizes to be appropriated $50 million for FY 2010 and such sums as may be necessary for FY 2011-2014. Section 6301 Patient-Centered Outcomes Research—Establishes non-profit Patient Centered Outcomes Research Institute. Purpose of Institute will be to assist patients, physicians, purchasers and policy-makers in making informed health decisions. Facility Specific Provisions Finally, PPACA makes facility specific changes including provisions directly impacting hospice and palliative care facilities, those provision follow: Sections 6101-6121—Require Medicare Skilled Nursing Facilities (SNFs) and Medicaid nursing facilities to disclose information on their ownership and organizational structure to government authorities. Mandates that such facilities implement compliance and ethics program within 3 years of enactment. Section 6103 directs the Nursing Home Compare Medicare Website to release staffing data for each facility, including resident census data, hours of care provided per resident per day, staffing turnover and tenure. Section 6105 directs the Secretary to create a standardized complaint form and requires states to establish a complaint resolution process, as well as providing whistleblower protection. Both provisions are effective within 1 year of enactment. Section 3004 Quality reporting for long-term care hospitals, inpatient rehabilitation hospitals, and hospice programs—Requires quality reporting programs for long‐term care hospitals, inpatient rehabilitation facilities, and hospice providers in 2014. HHS must issue regulations by October 1, 2012 that will list the specific quality reporting measures that must be reported. Providers who do not participate in the program would be subject to a reduction in their annual market basket update. Section 10325 Revision To Skilled Nursing Facility Prospective Payment System—Delays implementation of certain skilled nursing facility Version 4 of the Resource Utilization Groups (RUG-IV) published in the Federal Register on August 11, 2009 payment system changes by one year to October 1, 2011. Section 10326 Pilot Testing Pay-for-Performance Programs for Certain Medicare Providers—Directs HHS to conduct a separate pilot program under Medicare to test the implementation of a value-based purchasing program for payments under such title for the following provider groups: Psychiatric hospitals, Long-term care hospitals, Rehabilitation hospitals, PPS-exempt cancer hospitals and Hospice programs.

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2025 Assignment Assessing a Healthcare Program Policy Evaluation Program policy evaluation is a valuable tool that can help

Assessing a Healthcare Program/Policy Evaluation 2025

Assignment: Assessing a Healthcare Program/Policy Evaluation Program/policy evaluation is a valuable tool that can help strengthen the quality of programs/policies and improve outcomes for the populations they serve. Program/policy evaluation answers basic questions about program/policy effectiveness. It involves collecting and analyzing information about program/policy activities, characteristics, and outcomes. This information can be used to ultimately improve program services or policy initiatives. Nurses can play a very important role assessing program/policy evaluation for the same reasons that they can be so important to program/policy design. Nurses bring expertise and patient advocacy that can add significant insight and impact. In this Assignment, you will practice applying this expertise and insight by selecting an existing healthcare program or policy evaluation and reflecting on the criteria used to measure the effectiveness of the program/policy. To Prepare: · Review the Healthcare Program/Policy Evaluation Analysis Template provided in the Resources. · Select an existing healthcare program or policy evaluation or choose one of interest to you and get approval to use it from your Instructor. · Review the healthcare program or policy evaluation and reflect on the criteria used to measure the effectiveness of the program or policy described. The Assignment: (2–3 pages) Based on the program or policy evaluation you selected, complete the Healthcare Program/Policy Evaluation Analysis Template. Be sure to address the following: · Describe the healthcare program or policy outcomes. · How was the success of the program or policy measured? · How many people were reached by the program or policy selected? · How much of an impact was realized with the program or policy selected? · At what point in program implementation was the program or policy evaluation conducted? · What data was used to conduct the program or policy evaluation? · What specific information on unintended consequences was identified? · What stakeholders were identified in the evaluation of the program or policy? Who would benefit most from the results and reporting of the program or policy evaluation? Be specific and provide examples. · Did the program or policy meet the original intent and objectives? Why or why not? · Would you recommend implementing this program or policy in your place of work? Why or why not? · Identify at least two ways that you, as a nurse advocate, could become involved in evaluating a program or policy after 1 year of implementation.

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2025 The practice of health care providers at all levels brings you into contact with people from a

week 4 Redo- Case study on Death and Dying 2025

The practice of health care providers at all levels brings you into contact with people from a variety of faiths. This calls for knowledge and understanding of a diversity of faith expressions; for the purpose of this course, the focus will be on the Christian worldview. Based on “Case Study: End of Life Decisions,” the Christian worldview, and the worldview questions presented in the required topic study materials you will complete an ethical analysis of George’s situation and his decision from the perspective of the Christian worldview. Provide a 1,500-2,000-word ethical analysis while answering the following questions: How would George interpret his suffering in light of the Christian narrative, with an emphasis on the fallenness of the world? How would George interpret his suffering in light of the Christian narrative, with an emphasis on the hope of resurrection? As George contemplates life with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), how would the Christian worldview inform his view about the value of his life as a person? What sorts of values and considerations would the Christian worldview focus on in deliberating about whether or not George should opt for euthanasia? Given the above, what options would be morally justified in the Christian worldview for George and why? Based on your worldview, what decision would you make if you were in George’s situation? Remember to support your responses with the topic study materials. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide. An abstract is required. This assignment uses a rubric.You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. 1. Bioethics: A Primer for Christians Read Chapters 6 and 12 in Bioethics: A Primer for Christians . http://gcumedia.com/digital-resources/wm-b-eerdmans-publishing-co/2013/bioethics_a-primer-for-christians_ebook_3e.php 2. Called to Care: A Christian Worldview for Nursing Read Chapters 10-12 in Called to Care: A Christian Worldview for Nursing . http://gcumedia.com/digital-resources/intervarsity-press/2006/called-to-care_a-christian-worldview-for-nursing_ebook_2e.php 3. Defining Death: Medical, Legal and Ethical Issues in the Determination of Death Read the Introduction and Chapters 1-3 of “Defining Death: Medical, Legal and Ethical Issues in the Determination of Death” by the President’s Commission for the Study of Ethical Problems in Medicine and Biomedical and Behavioral Research (1984). https://repository.library.georgetown.edu/bitstream/handle/10822/559345/defining_death.pdf?sequence=1 Rubric Analysis of how the man would interpret his suffering in light of the Christian narrative and the fallenness of the world is clear and demonstrates a deep understanding that is skillfully supported by topic study materials. 12% Analysis of how the man would interpret his suffering in light of the Christian narrative and the hope of resurrection is clear and demonstrates a deep understanding that is skillfully supported by topic study materials. 12% Analysis of how the Christian worldview of the man might inform his view about the value of his life as a person with ALS is clear and demonstrates a deep understanding that is skillfully supported by topic study materials.12% Evaluation of which values and considerations the Christian worldview focuses on when deliberating the option of euthanasia for the man is clear and demonstrates a deep understanding that is skillfully supported by topic study materials. 12% Evaluation of which options would be justified in the Christian worldview for the man is clear and demonstrates a deep understanding that is skillfully supported by topic study materials. 12% Reflection hypothesis of which personal choices would be make if faced with ALS based on personal worldview is clear, relevant, and insightful. 10% Thesis is comprehensive and contains the essence of the paper. Thesis statement makes the purpose of the paper clear. 7% Clear and convincing argument presents a persuasive claim in a distinctive and compelling manner. All sources are authoritative. 8% Writer is clearly in command of standard, written, academic English. 5% All format elements are correct.5% Sources are completely and correctly documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is free of error. 5%

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2025 Provide a 3 4 sentence response to discussion question answer provided below in apa format with in text

Gaps in literature and different types of evidence 2025

Provide a 3-4 sentence response to discussion question answer provided below in apa format with in-text citations. Title page is not needed Answer: Identifying gaps during literature review or other types of evidence is an integral step in a systematic review. Gaps in research findings can be related to insufficient or vague information, biased information, inconsistent results, unknown consistency with the results, or not providing the right information. Research gaps can limit the ability for key stakeholders to make decisions and implement evidence-based practice changes (Robinson, 2013). Even though research may present with gaps, do these gaps help or hinder when attempting to create change in an organization? The answer could be both. In one instance, it could hinder the process if the existing evidence does not answer the question or there are significant deficiencies with the information which limits the ability to create a solution to a practice problem. On the other hand, research gaps can be further developed and provide a springboard for stakeholders to look into other areas of research or evidence (Robinson, 2013). Original Question: When reviewing the literature and different types of evidence, there are often gaps in the findings. Are such gaps a help or a hindrance when wanting to create a change?

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2025 1 DQ 1 Population health promotion involves the improvement of the quality of life of the community through

Explain the role of the community health nurse in partnership with community stakeholders for population health promotion. 2025

1 DQ 1 Population health promotion involves the improvement of the quality of life of the community through the provision of primary, secondary and tertiary healthcare services. The community health nurse should, therefore, play a supervisory role of the community member to control and regulate their health behavior. The primary function of the nurse in the partnership with the community stakeholders is to guide and advise them on the healthy practice that can promote a healthy living of the community (Eldredge et al., 2015). For instance, the community health nurse can decide to encourage the community stakeholders to champion the construction of toilets by each household in the community. That way, the nurse will be providing primary care through the community stakeholders who can prevent the development of disease in the community. The nurse can also take advantage of the community stakeholders to organize a community meeting whereby the nurse can advise and educate the community on health-seeking behavior and health promotion activities. Appraising community resources like religious and nonprofit making organizations in the community is vital in enhancing community participation in health promotion. For instance, religious institutions are against some social acts that can encourage the spread of diseases like premarital sex. Appraising such values in such institutions helps to improve the community’s understanding and participation in disease prevention and health promotion. Using 200-300 words APA format with references in support of the discussion Explain the role of the community health nurse in partnership with community stakeholders for population health promotion. Explain why it is important to appraise community resources (nonprofit, spiritual/religious, etc.) as part of a community assessment and why these resources are important in population health promotion.

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2025 1 posts Re Topic 3 DQ 1 In the nineteenth century health was described as the absence of

Discuss how the concept of “health” has changed overtime. Discuss how the concept has evolved to include wellness, illness 2025

1 posts Re: Topic 3 DQ 1 In the nineteenth century, health was described as the absence of disease.Because of the lack of sanitary conditions, diseases spread more widely.Sanitary conditions were better known in the late 19th and early 20th centuries, and steps were taken to adequately control them, resulting in diseases that were more manageable. Vaccines were invented in the twentieth century, and the concept of health changed from cure to prevention. As the field of health promotion expanded, the term “health” came to mean a combination of factors such as physical, emotional, and spiritual well-being (Falkner, 2018). Today’s goals is to create a community of wellness in which health promotion and disease prevention take precedence over seeking careonce an illness has developed.We now realize that fitness and wellbeing go hand in hand with disease prevention. We may not always have control over our health, but we can make decisions to improve our well-being. Promoting good health has existed for as long as there have been efforts to improve the public’s health. “The method of encouraging people to gain control over and improve their health is known as health promotion” (World Health Organization, 2019, para. 1).It shifts the emphasis away from human actions and toward a variety of social and environmental interventions.The nurse’s position in health promotion is critical, and it includes being an advocate, a provider of care/services, a care manager, an educator, and a researcher. The nurse is pushing reform to strengthen procedures in order to improve patient safety by using EBP to do so. Falkner, A. (2018) Health promotion in nursing care. In Grand Canyon University (Eds.), Health promotion: Health and wellness across the continuum. Retrieved from World Health Organization. (2019). What is health promotion. Retrieved from https://www.who.int/healthpromotion/fact-sheet/e Respond using 200-300 words APA format with references supporting in discussion

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2025 Due Date Mar 03 2019 23 59 59 Max Points 100 Details Based on the required topic

Worldview Analysis and Personal Inventory 2025

Due Date: Mar 03, 2019 23:59:59 Max Points: 100 Details: Based on the required topic study materials, write a reflection about worldview and respond to following: In 250-300 words, explain the Christian perspective of the nature of spirituality and ethics in contrast to the perspective of postmodern relativism within health care. In 250-300 words, explain what scientism is and describe two of the main arguments against it. In 750-1,000 words, answer each of the worldview questions according to your own personal perspective and worldview: (a) What is ultimate reality? (b) What is the nature of the universe? (c) What is a human being? (d) What is knowledge? (e) What is your basis of ethics? (f) What is the purpose of your existence? Remember to support your reflection with the topic study materials. While APA style is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Refer to the LopesWrite Technical Support articles for assistance Worldview Analysis and Personal Inventory 1 Unsatisfactory 0.00% 2 Less than Satisfactory 65.00% 3 Satisfactory 75.00% 4 Good 85.00% 5 Excellent 100.00% 70.0 %Content 20.0 %Christian Perspective of Spirituality and Ethics in Contrast to Postmodern Relativism Explanation of the Christian perspective of the nature of spirituality and ethics in contrast to the perspective of postmodern relativism is incomplete or insufficient. Explanation of the Christian perspective of the nature of spirituality and ethics in contrast to the perspective of postmodern relativism is unclear. Explanation is not supported by topic study materials. Explanation of the Christian perspective of the nature of spirituality and ethics in contrast to the perspective of postmodern relativism is clear. Explanation is not supported by topic study materials. Explanation of the Christian perspective of the nature of spirituality and ethics in contrast to the perspective of postmodern relativism is clear and detailed. Explanation is supported by topic study materials. Explanation of the Christian perspective of the nature of spirituality and ethics in contrast to the perspective of postmodern relativism is clear, detailed, and demonstrates a deep understanding of the subject. Explanation is supported by topic study materials. 20.0 %Scientism and Arguments Explanation of scientism or the explanations of two main arguments against scientism are inaccurate. Details are not supported. Description of scientism is accurate. Explanations of two main arguments against scientism are unclear. Details are not clearly supported by topic study materials. Explanation of scientism is clear. Explanations of two main arguments against scientism are clear. Details are supported by topic study materials. Explanation of scientism is clear and accurate. Explanations of two main arguments against scientism are clear. Details are clearly supported by topic study materials. Explanation of scientism is clear and accurate. Explanations of two main arguments against scientism are clear and insightful. Details are clearly supported by topic study materials. 30.0 %Personal Perspective and Worldview Worldview questions are not fully answered. Each of the worldview questions is answered but is lacking a personal connection or clarity. Each of the worldview questions is answered with personal connection. Each of the worldview questions is answered clearly and with personal connection. Each of the worldview questions is answered clearly and with deep personal insight. 30.0 %Organization, Effectiveness, and Format 7.0 %Thesis Development and Purpose Paper lacks any discernible overall purpose or organizing claim. Thesis is insufficiently developed or vague. Purpose is not clear. Thesis is apparent and appropriate to purpose. Thesis is clear and forecasts the development of the paper. Thesis is descriptive and reflective of the arguments and appropriate to the purpose. Thesis is comprehensive and contains the essence of the paper. Thesis statement makes the purpose of the paper clear. 30.0 %Organization, Effectiveness, and Format 8.0 %Argument Logic and Construction Statement of purpose is not justified by the conclusion. The conclusion does not support the claim made. Argument is incoherent and uses noncredible sources. Sufficient justification of claims is lacking. Argument lacks consistent unity. There are obvious flaws in the logic. Some sources have questionable credibility. Argument is orderly, but may have a few inconsistencies. The argument presents minimal justification of claims. Argument logically, but not thoroughly, supports the purpose. Sources used are credible. Introduction and conclusion bracket the thesis. Argument shows logical progression. Techniques of argumentation are evident. There is a smooth progression of claims from introduction to conclusion. Most sources are authoritative. Clear and convincing argument presents a persuasive claim in a distinctive and compelling manner. All sources are authoritative. 30.0 %Organization, Effectiveness, and Format 5.0 %Mechanics of Writing (includes spelling, punctuation, grammar, language use) Surface errors are pervasive enough that they impede communication of meaning. Inappropriate word choice or sentence construction is used. Frequent and repetitive mechanical errors distract the reader. Inconsistencies in language choice (register) or word choice are present. Sentence structure is correct but not varied. Some mechanical errors or typos are present, but they are not overly distracting to the reader. Correct and varied sentence structure and audience-appropriate language are employed. Prose is largely free of mechanical errors, although a few may be present. The writer uses a variety of effective sentence structures and figures of speech. Writer is clearly in command of standard, written, academic English. 30.0 %Organization, Effectiveness, and Format 5.0 %Paper Format (use of appropriate style for the major and assignment) Template is not used appropriately, or documentation format is rarely followed correctly. Appropriate template is used, but some elements are missing or mistaken. A lack of control with formatting is apparent. Appropriate template is used. Formatting is correct, although some minor errors may be present. Appropriate template is fully used. There are virtually no errors in formatting style. All format elements are correct. 30.0 %Organization, Effectiveness, and Format 5.0 %Documentation of Sources (citations, footnotes, references, bibliography, etc., as appropriate to assignment and style) Sources are not documented. Documentation of sources is inconsistent or incorrect, as appropriate to assignment and style, with numerous formatting errors. Sources are documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, although some formatting errors may be present. Sources are documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is mostly correct. Sources are completely and correctly documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is free of error. 100 %Total Weightage

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2025 Question 1 A nurse educator who coordinates the staff education on an oncology unit

Walden NURS6521 Week 9 Quiz 2017 2025

Question 1 A nurse educator who coordinates the staff education on an oncology unit is conducting an inservice on targeted therapies. What potential benefit of targeted therapies should the nurse highlight in this education session? A) Targeted therapies achieve the therapeutic benefits of traditional chemotherapy with no risk of adverse effects. B) Targeted therapies have the potential to provide prophylactic protection against neoplasia in high-risk individuals. C) Targeted therapies are significantly more cost-effective than traditional chemotherapeutic drugs. D) Targeted therapies have the potential to damage cancerous cells while leaving normal body cells less affected. Question 2 An oncology nurse is aware of the risks for injury that exist around the preparation, transportation, and administration of chemotherapeutic agents. In order to reduce these risks of injury, the nurse should take which of the following actions? A) Dispose of intravenous lines used for chemotherapy administration in a covered trash can in the patient’s room. B) Use an IV system for administration that includes needles to reduce the risk of accidental spills. C) Prime the IV tubing with an approved IV solution rather than with the drug itself. D) Encourage patients who have been receiving chemotherapy to use a bedside commode rather than a toilet. Question 3 A patient has just received her first dose of imatinib and the nurse on the oncology unit is amending the patient’s care plan accordingly. What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in light of this addition to the patient’s drug regimen? A) Risk for Infection related to bone marrow suppression B) Risk for Acute Confusion related to adverse neurological effects of imatinib C) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity related to exaggerated inflammatory response D) Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to changes in osmotic pressure Question 4 A nurse has administered filgrastim to a diverse group of patients in recent months. Which of the following patients should the nurse observe for extremely elevated white blood cell counts following administration of the drug? A) A 19-year-old male receiving radiotherapy B) A 25-year-old female with a diagnosis of congenital neutropenia C) A 39-year-old female with a nonmyeloid malignancy D) A 47-year-old male with aplastic anemia Question 5 A patient with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) will imminently begin a course of treatment with rituximab. In order to minimize the risk of adverse effects, what strategy for administration will be adopted? A) Admitting the patient to the intensive care unit in anticipation of the initial bolus of the drug B) Administering diphenhydramine 30 minutes prior to the initial dose of rituximab C) Administering the drug by slow infusion to two peripheral IV sites simultaneously D) Administering the initial doses by slow infusion while observing for adverse reactions Question 6 A 45-year-old woman with acute leukemia is going to begin chemotherapy with vincristine. The nurse is aware that vincristine must always be administered A) at a rapid infusion rate. B) at a slow infusion rate. C) through an IV line primed with vincristine. D) through a central line. Question 7 Mr. Singh is a 66-year-old man who is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of lung cancer that has metastasized to his liver. In an effort to prevent infection, Mr. Singh has been prescribed filgrastim (Neupogen). Which of the nurse’s following assessment questions most directly addresses a common adverse effect of filgrastim? A) “Have you noticed any bleeding in your gums or cheeks?” B) “Do you feel like you’re having any pain in your bones?” C) “Are you experiencing any waves of cool, clammy skin?” D) “Have you had any shortness of breath lately?” Question 8 A 67-year-old man who is being treated for prostate cancer is taking epoetin alfa. The nurse will instruct the patient to A) stop taking the drug after a 2-week period. B) schedule an appointment to measure hemoglobin twice a week for at least 2 to 6 weeks. C) schedule an appointment to check if the patient has a high WBC count. D) begin taking a calcium channel blocker to treat hypertension, which usually develops as an adverse effect of epoetin alfa therapy. Question 9 A male patient is receiving heparin by continuous intravenous infusion. The nurse will instruct the patient and family members to report which of the following should it occur? A) A skin rash B) Sudden occurrence of sleepiness and drowsiness C) Dizziness D) Presence of blood in urine or stools abcd Question 10 A nurse is caring for a 64-year-old female patient who is receiving IV heparin and reports bleeding from her gums. The nurse checks the patient’s laboratory test results and finds that she has a very high aPTT. The nurse anticipates that which of the following drugs may be ordered? A) Coumadin B) Alteplase C) Ticlopidine D) Protamine sulfate Question 11 A nurse has been assigned to a 55-year-old woman who has a malignant brain tumor. The patient is receiving her first dose of carmustine. It will be critical for the nurse to observe for which of the following? A) Nausea and vomiting B) Respiratory difficulty C) Inability to drink fluids for 6 hours D) Reddish urine Question 12 A nurse is assessing a patient who has chronic lymphoblastic myelogenous leukemia. The treatment plan includes hydroxyurea (Hydrea). The nurse will assess the patient for which of the following? A) Diabetes mellitus B) Hypertension C) Leukopenia D) Hypoglycemia Question 13 A patient’s current course of cancer treatment involves the administration of a conjugated monoclonal antibody. What characteristic of the drug is specified by the fact that it is classified as a conjugated drug? A) The drug is derived from nonhuman sources. B) The targeted therapy is combined with another substance that causes cell death. C) The targeted therapy is combination of a monoclonal antibody, a kinase inhibitor, and an inorganic cytotoxin. D) The drug is able to adapt its pharmacokinetics to the etiology of the patient’s cancer. Question 14 An oncology nurse is reviewing the pathophysiology of cancer and is discussing with a colleague the factors that contribute to the success or failure of a patient’s chemotherapy. Which of the following cancerous cells is most susceptible to the effects of chemotherapeutic drugs? A) Cells with a long generation time B) Cells that lack contact inhibition C) Cells that have a rapid mitotic rate D) Cells that lack a blood supply Question 15 A patient receiving high-dose cisplatin therapy exhibits symptoms of hypomagnesemia. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to help offset the magnesium losses from the cisplatin therapy? A) Consuming dairy products B) Consuming chocolates C) Drinking 2 to 3 liters of fluid a day D) Consuming potassium-rich foods Question 16 An older adult woman has been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) and her care team has identified potential benefits of imatinib. Which of the following characteristics of this patient’s current health status may preclude the use of imatinib? A) The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus that is controlled using diet and oral antihyperglycemics. B) The patient has chronic heart failure resulting in significant peripheral edema. C) The patient experienced a mild ischemic stroke several years ago and had transient ischemic attacks last year. D) The patient had a total knee arthroplasty several months earlier. Question 17 A female patient is prescribed oprelvekin therapy to treat thrombocytopenia. Which of the following should the nurse continuously monitor to determine the efficacy and duration of the oprelvekin therapy? A) Weight gain B) Platelet count C) Red and white blood cell count D) Cardiac arrhythmias Question 18 During ongoing assessment of a patient receiving 5-FU therapy, the nurse finds the patient’s platelet count to be 92,000 cells/mm3. The nurse should do which of the following? A) Consult the prescriber for an increase in dosage B) Consult the prescriber for a decrease in dosage C) Consult the prescriber for discontinuation of the drug D) Continue the therapy as prescribed Question 19 A nurse has been assigned to a female patient who is to begin chemotherapy. The nurse will initiate the prescribed oprelvekin therapy A) 6 to 24 hours after chemotherapy. B) 2 days after chemotherapy. C) 6 days after chemotherapy. D) 10 days after chemotherapy. Question 20 A patient with a recent diagnosis of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is discussing treatment options with his care team.What aspect of the patient’s condition would contraindicate the use of cyclophosphamide for the treatment of leukemia? A) The patient has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes and takes oral antihyperglycemics. B) The patient has had a history of nonadherence to medical treatment. C) The patient’s bone marrow function is significantly depressed. D) The patient has decreased renal function. Question 21 A female patient has follicular non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and is receiving thalidomide (Thalomid). It will be most important for the nurse to monitor this patient for which of the following? A) Angina B) Fever C) Chills and rigors D) Bleeding Question 22 When planning care for a patient who is receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for a nonmyeloid malignancy, the nurse should formulate which of the following patient outcomes? (Select all that apply.) A) The patient will not develop an infection. B) The patient will not experience bone pain. C) The patient will be able to self-administer filgrastim at home. D) The patient will not develop febrile neutropenia. E) The patient will not retain fluid. Question 23 A nurse is to use a single-dose 1 mL vial to administer 0.5 mL of epoetin alfa to a 39-year-old woman who is being treated for chemotherapy-induced anemia. Which of the following will the nurse do with the unused portion of the drug? A) Refrigerate the medication for a future use. B) Discard the unused portion of the drug. C) Store the medication in the drug cart for the next dose. D) Put the medication in the freezer compartment of the refrigerator. Question 24 nurse is discussing oprelvekin therapy with a male patient. Which of the following will the nurse tell the patient is the most common adverse effect of the drug? A) Medullary bone pain B) Papilledema C) Fluid retention/weight gain D) Atrial arrhythmia Question 25 A patient with chronic heart failure has begun treatment with epoetin alfa, which she will receive in her own home from a home health nurse. The nurse should teach the patient to supplement this treatment with a diet that is high in A) iron-rich foods such as beans and leafy green vegetables. B) complex carbohydrates and vegetable-source proteins. C) calcium, such as dairy products, fish and vegetables. D) protein and low in carbohydrates. Question 26 A nurse is administering rituximab to a patient via the IV route. The nurse will set the IV pump at 50 mg/hour for the first half hour of the initial infusion. If there are not apparent reactions after 30 minutes of the infusion, the nurse will increase the dosage every 30 minutes by 50 mg/hour until the maximum infusion rate reaches which of the following? A) 250 mg/hour B) 300 mg/hour C) 400 mg/hour D) 500 mg/hour Question 27 A 62-year-old patient taking tamoxifen exhibits increased bone and tumor pain along with a local disease flare. The nurse interprets this as an indication of which of the following? A) A hypersensitivity reaction B) The tumor responding to treatment C) Nephrotoxic effects of tamoxifen D) Cardiomyopathy Question 28 A male patient is receiving rituximab therapy for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Which of the following would be a priority nursing intervention to reduce the risk for cytotoxicity and tumor lysis syndrome? A) Ensure that the patient maintains a normal breathing pattern. B) Ensure that the patient maintains a normal fluid and electrolyte balance. C) Protect the patient from exposure to infections. D) Monitor the patient for deterioration in renal function. Question 29 A patient with a diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukemia has met with her oncologist, who has recommended treatment with the kinase inhibitor imatinib. What route of administration should the nurse explain to the patient? A) Daily intramuscular injections throughout the course of treatment B) Peripheral IV administration three times a day for 7 to 10 days C) Weekly IV infusions over 6 to 8 hours through a central line D) Oral administration of imatinib in a home setting Question 30 A 60-year-old patient experienced a sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath and was subsequently diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism in the emergency department. The patient has been started on an intravenous heparin infusion. How does this drug achieve therapeutic effect? A) By promoting the rapid excretion of vitamin K by the gastrointestinal mucosa B) By inhibiting the action of vitamin K at its sites of action C) By inhibiting platelet aggregation on vessel walls and promoting fibrinolysis D) By inactivating clotting factors and thus stopping the coagulation cascade Question 31 A male patient has been on long-term bicalutamide (Casodex) therapy. In order to assess adverse effects of the drug therapy, the nurse will closely monitor which of the following? A) Visual function B) Blood counts C) Pap test results D) Liver function Question 32 Intravenous carmustine has been prescribed for a patient with cancer. The nurse should help relieve the discomfort of pain and burning during the infusion by A) slowing the infusion. B) decreasing the volume used for dilution. C) decreasing the total volume of the primary IV infusion. D) administering a dose of 2 units of bleomycin before carmustine. Question 33 A middle-aged patient has received a diagnosis of GI stromal tumor following an extensive diagnostic workup. Imatinib has been recommended as a component of the patient’s drug regimen. What patient education should the nurse provide to this patient? A) “It’s important that you let us know if you develop any significant swelling or puffiness.” B) “Try to keep your PICC line dressing as dry as possible at all times.” C) “You’ll likely experience a lot of dry mouth while you’re taking this drug, so it’s helpful to chew ice chips.” D) “If you experience significant nausea after taking a dose, stop taking the drug and schedule an appointment at the clinic.” Question 34 A nurse has completed a medication reconciliation of a patient who has been admitted following a motor vehicle accident. Among the many drugs that the patient has received in the previous year is rituximab. The nurse would be justified in suspecting the patient may have received treatment for which of the following diseases? A) Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma B) Malignant melanoma C) Nonsmall cell lung cancer D) Renal cell carcinoma Question 35 Mr. Lepp is a 63-year-old man who was diagnosed with colon cancer several weeks ago and who is scheduled to begin chemotherapy.He reports to the nurse that he read about the need for erythropoietin in an online forum for cancer patients and wants to explore the use of epoetin alfa with his oncologist. Which of the following facts should underlie the nurse’s response to Mr. Lepp? A) Epoetin alfa is normally contraindicated in patients who are receiving radiotherapy or chemotherapy. B) Treatment with epoetin alfa will likely begin 4 to 6 days before Mr. Lepp’s first round of chemotherapy and continue indefinitely. C) The potential benefits of epoetin alfa must be weighed carefully against the potential adverse effects in cancer patients. D) Mr. Lepp’s oncologist should have begun treatment with epoetin alfa immediately after he was diagnosed.

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2025 Health History Mr C a 32 year old single male is seeking information at

ELIMINATION COMPLEXITIES 2025

Health History Mr. C., a 32-year-old single male, is seeking information at the outpatient center regarding possible bariatric surgery for his obesity. He currently works at a catalog telephone center. He reports that he has always been heavy, even as a small child, gaining approximately 100 pounds in the last 2-3 years. Previous medical evaluations have not indicated any metabolic diseases, but he says he has sleep apnea and high blood pressure, which he tries to control by restricting dietary sodium. Mr. C. reports increasing shortness of breath with activity, swollen ankles, and pruritus over the last 6 months. Objective Data: 1. Height: 68 inches; weight 134.5 kg 2. BP: 172/98, HR 88, RR 26 3. 3+ pitting edema bilateral feet and ankles 4. Fasting blood glucose: 146 mg/dL 5. Total cholesterol: 250 mg/dL 6. Triglycerides: 312 mg/dL 7. HDL: 30 mg/dL 8. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL 9. BUN 32 mg/dl Critical Thinking Essay In 900-words, critically evaluate Mr. C.’s potential diagnosis and intervention(s). Include the following: 1. Describe the clinical manifestations present in Mr. C. 2. Describe the potential health risks for obesity that are of concern for Mr. C. Discuss whether bariatric surgery is an appropriate intervention. 3. Assess each of Mr. C.’s functional health patterns using the information given. Discuss at least five actual or potential problems can you identify from the functional health patterns and provide the rationale for each. (Functional health patterns include health-perception, health-management, nutritional, metabolic, elimination, activity-exercise, sleep-rest, cognitive-perceptual, self-perception/self-concept, role-relationship, sexuality/reproductive, coping-stress tolerance.) 4. Explain the staging of end-stage renal disease (ESRD) and contributing factors to consider. 5. Consider ESRD prevention and health promotion opportunities. Describe what type of patient education should be provided to Mr. C. for prevention of future events, health restoration, and avoidance of deterioration of renal status. 6. Explain the type of resources available for ESRD patients for nonacute care and the type of multidisciplinary approach that would be beneficial for these patients. Consider aspects such as devices, transportation, living conditions, return-to-employment issues. You are required to cite to three sources to complete this assignment. Sources must be published within the last 5 years. Also, you must have an abstract and a conclusion with a minimum of 5 sentences to wrap up this case study.

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