WEEK 5: DISCUSSION QUESTION IN DISCUSSION BOARD DERMATOLOGY CASE STUDY ACC/AHA Guidelines – 2025 Week 5 Discussion question worth 5 points Discussion question due by Sunday 11 59 pm Following Case Study Question As

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WEEK 5: DISCUSSION QUESTION IN DISCUSSION BOARD DERMATOLOGY CASE STUDY ACC/AHA Guidelines – 2025

  

Week 5 

Discussion question worth 5 points

Discussion question due by Sunday, 11:59 pm. 

Following Case Study Question: As an NP student, needs to determine the medications for Tinea Pedis.

RX format: Medication, SIG: Instructions (Route, frequency, location, duration), Dispense #, Refills, ?

According to the ACC/AHA Guidelines, what antifungal medication should this patient be prescribed? Write her complete prescriptions using the prescription writing format and SOAP (subjective, objective, assesment, plan) format. 

Please include patient education regarding the selected medication therapy. Please choose a medication to treat tinea pedis that would not exacerbate other patient’s symptoms. You may order labs for baseline before starting the therapy and specify which labs. 

Next to the chosen medication therapy, please choose references to support your treatment choice of medication or lab for baseline and follow up of therapy ordered. Specify when to refer the patient after therapy and why ?

WEEK 5: DISCUSSION QUESTION IN DISCUSSION BOARD

DERMATOLOGY CASE STUDY

ACC/AHA Guidelines

Chief complaint:  “ I have scaly crust in sole of feet and moist white crusts between my toes since I started using boots warm weather” for past 2 weeks. 

HPI: E.D a 45-year-old hispanic female presents to the clinic for complaint of itching in feet and scaly curst in sole of feet and moist white crusts between toes. She developed a red, itchy rash consistent with hypersensitivity reaction. She also indicates that she has noticed that her symptoms are worsening for past 2 weeks and it started after she started to use boots in warm weather. She has symptoms of red, itching rash consistent with a hypersensitivity reaction and tinea pedis. She wore about 2 weeks ago her mother’s shoes without socks and her mother has history of Tinea Pedis.

She has tried lotrimin AF cream for itching and it did not help relief her symptoms. She has not tried other remedies.

Denies associated symptoms of fever, chills, pain or any other symptoms.

PMH:

Diabetes Mellitus, type 2. Peripheral Vascular disease. Varicose Veins.

Surgeries: None

Allergies: Penicillin

Vaccination History:

She receives an annual flu shot. Last flu shot was this year

Social history:

High school graduate, married and no children. He drinks one 4-ounce glass of red wine daily. He is a former smoker that stopped 3 years ago.

Family history:

Both parents are alive. Father has history of DM type 2, Tinea Pedis.

mother alive and has history of atopic dermatitis, tinea corporis and tinea pedis.

ROS:

Constitutional: Negative for fever. Negative for chills.

Respiratory: No Shortness of breath. No Orthopnea

Cardiovascular: + 1 pitting leg edema. + Varicose veins.

Skin: + rash crusted white in feet and inter-digit in feet.

Psychiatric: No anxiety. No depression.

Physical examination:

Vital Signs

Height: 5 feet 5 inches Weight: 140 pounds BMI: 31 obesity, BP 130/70 T 98.0 po P 88 R 22, non-labored

HEENT: Normocephalic/Atraumatic, Bilateral cataracts; PERRL, EOMI; No teeth loss seen. Gums no redness.

NECK: Neck supple, no palpable masses, no lymphadenopathy, no thyroid enlargement.

LUNGS: No Crackles. Lungs clear bilaterally. Equal breath sounds. Symmetrical respiration. No respiratory distress.

HEART: Normal S1 with S2 during expiration. Pulses are 2+ in upper extremities. 1+ pitting edema ankle bilaterally.

ABDOMEN: No abdominal distention. Nontender. Bowel sounds + x 4 quadrants. No organomegaly. Normal contour; No palpable masses.

GENITOURINARY: No CVA tenderness bilaterally. GU exam deferred.

MUSCULOSKELETAL: Slow gait but steady. No Kyphosis.

SKIN: +Dryness, No open lesions. +Dry crusts in sole of feet. + moist crust in between toes.

PSYCH: Normal affect. Cooperative.

Labs:: Hgb 13.2, Hct 38%, K+ 4.0, Na+137, Cholesterol 225, Triglycerides 187, HDL 37, LDL 190, TSH 3.7, glucose 98

A:

Primary Diagnosis: Tinea Pedis

Secondary Diagnoses:

Atopic Dermatitis

Xerosis

Pruritus

Differential Diagnosis:

Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD) (173.9)

P:

Medications:

Tylenol 650 mg PO Q4 hours as needed for arthritis pain

Labs: CBC with diff to evaluate for infection and baseline lab. CMP, PT/INR to evaluate status of liver and kidneys.

Referrals: may refer based on effect of medication therapy given for 2 weeks.

Follow up: return to office in 2 weeks to evaluate her symptoms.

Additional lab results:

Fungal culture confirm that she has fungal infection.

Question: As an NP student, needs to determine the medications for Tinea Pedis.

According to the ACC/AHA Guidelines, what antifungal medication should this patient be prescribed? Write her complete prescriptions using the prescription writing format. Write her complete prescriptions using the prescription writing format and SOAP (subjective, objective, assesment, plan) format. 

Next to the chosen medication therapy, please choose references to support your treatment choice of medication or lab for baseline and follow up of therapy ordered. Specify when to refer the patient after therapy and why ? Choose a medication to treat the patient’s condition of tinea pedis that would not exacerbate other patient’s symptoms. You may order labs for baseline before start of therapy and specify which labs.

 

Descriptive Epidemiology – 2025 Descriptive Epidemiology HIV AIDS was first recognized as an epidemic in the United States in 1981

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Descriptive Epidemiology – 2025

  

Descriptive Epidemiology

HIV/AIDS was first recognized as an epidemic in the United States in 1981. At the beginning of the AIDS epidemic, the life expectancy for infected persons was less than 7 years. Today, because of research and new treatment options, people who begin treatment soon after diagnosis can expect to live a nearly normal life span (Cairns, 2010). The HIV/AIDS epidemic was identified through descriptive epidemiology.

Descriptive epidemiologic studies are often conducted as precursors to analytic studies. Epidemiologic concepts are used to gather data to better understand and evaluate health trends in populations. Data such as characteristics of the persons affected, place where an incident occurred, and time of occurrence are collected and analyzed to look for patterns in an effort to identify emerging health problems. In this Discussion, you will apply the epidemiologic concepts of time, place, and person to a specific population health problem.

To prepare:

  • Consider      a variety of population health problems, and then select one on which to      focus for this Discussion.
  • Identify      a specific population affected by your selected health problem.
  • Research      the patterns of the disease in your selected population using the      epidemiologic characteristics of person, place, and time.
  • Explore      three to five data sources presented in the Learning Resources that could      aid you in describing the population and magnitude of the problem. Analyze      the strengths and limitations of each data source.
  • Consider      methods for obtaining raw data to determine the variables of person,      place, and time for your health problem. Ask yourself: How would the      methods I select influence the accuracy of case identification,      definition, and diagnosis?

By tomorrow Wednesday 03/07/18 by 4pm, write a minimum of 550 words in APA format with a minimum of THREE scholarly references from the list of required readings below. Include the level one headers as numbered below:

Post a cohesive response that addresses the following:

1) Evaluate your selected health problem in the population you identified by describing THREE to FIVE characteristics related to person, place, and time.

2) Appraise the data sources you utilized by outlining the strengths and limitations of each.

3) Discuss TWO methods you could use to collect raw data to determine the descriptive epidemiology of your health problem, determine how these methods would influence the completeness of case identification as well as the case definition/diagnostic criteria used.

Required Readings

Friis, R. H., & Sellers, T. A. (2014). Epidemiology for public health practice (5th ed.). Sudbury, MA: Jones & Bartlett.

Chapter 3, “Measures of Morbidity and Mortality Used in Epidemiology”

Chapter 4, “Descriptive Epidemiology: Person, Place, Time”

Chapter 5, “Sources of Data for Use in Epidemiology”

Chapter 3 examines several measures of disease frequency that are typically utilized in epidemiology.

In Chapter 4, the authors address a basic premise of epidemiology: that disease occurs in patterns reflecting underlying factors (rather than occurring randomly). Using the tools introduced in Chapter 3, it is possible to take a more detailed look at the occurrence of disease, focusing on characteristics related to person, place, and time. This chapter also notes the distinction between descriptive versus analytic epidemiology; descriptive studies characterize the amount and distribution of disease within a population, whereas analytic epidemiology is concerned with the determinants of disease.

Chapter 5 provides information about various data sources that are available to the general public, and the authors examine some of the critical issues related to data collection and use that require careful attention.

Nash, D. B., Fabius, R. J., Skoufalos, A., Clarke, J. L. & Horowitz, M. R. (2016). Population health: Creating a culture of wellness (2nd ed). Burlington, MA: Jones & Bartlett Learning.

Chapter 12, “Information Technology”

In this chapter, the authors examine the use of information technology, noting that research based on richer, more real-time data will inform policy decisions in all parts of the health care system. The challenge of integrating individual patient is mobile applications into the electronic health record are presented.

Required Media

Laureate Education (Producer). (2012). Epidemiology and population health [Interactive media]. Baltimore, MD: Author.

“Descriptive Measures”

This presentation introduces you to the concept and calculation of important descriptive measures used in epidemiology—namely, incidence and prevalence. In addition, you will see how to use direct and indirect age-adjustment to compare mortality rates in two populations.

Informatics In The Clinical Setting – 2025 Conduct an interview with someone in an informatics role in a clinical

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Informatics In The Clinical Setting – 2025

 

Conduct an interview with someone in an informatics role in a clinical setting. Then, compose a 4-5 pages paper discussing the following components:

  • Role description and education level required for the role.
  • Describe their views on how their role impacts patient safety and improves the quality of patient care.
  • Describe the Human Factors faced in the role and other challenges.
  • Express insights gained from the interview.
  • Research and discuss the impact of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) Patient Safety Indicators and The Joint Commission Patient Safety Goals in your clinical setting. Describe how these governing agencies impact delivery of direct patient care.
  • Research, discuss, and identify the Technology Informatics Guiding Education Reform (TIGER) utilized in your clinical setting. Be sure to get the perspective of your selected informatics professional during your interview.
  • On a separate page, cite all sources using APA format.
    • Use this APA Citation Helper as a convenient reference for properly citing resources.
    • This handout will provide you the details of formatting your essay using APA style.
    • You may create your essay in this APA-formatted template.

NSG 6101 – 2025 APA Citation and reference By the due date assigned write a 2 page paper addressing the sections

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NSG 6101 – 2025

APA, Citation and reference 

By the due date assigned, write a 2 page paper addressing the sections below of the research proposal.

Methodology

  • Extraneous Variables (and plan for how controlled).
  • Instruments: Description, validity, and reliability estimates, which have been performed (on a pre-established measure). Include plans for testing validity and reliability of generating your own instrument(s).
  • Description of the Intervention
  • Data Collection Procedures

The Impact Of Triple Aim Goals – 2025 Read the IHI Triple Aim Initiative page on the Institute for Healthcare Improvement s website and watch the video

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The Impact Of Triple Aim Goals – 2025

 

Read the IHI Triple Aim Initiative page on the Institute for Healthcare Improvement’s website and watch the video “Design of a Triple Aim Enterprise”.

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper that evaluates the impact of implementing Triple Aim goals nationally. Determine whether the three dimensions of Triple Aim would be achievable:

  • Improving quality and satisfaction for the patient experience of care
  • Improving the health of populations
  • Reducing the per capita cost of health care

Cite 3 reputable references to support your assignment (e.g., trade or industry publications, government or agency websites, scholarly works, or other sources of similar quality).

 

The following will need to be used to complete assignment

  • The IHI Triple Aim   http://www.ihi.org/Engage/Initiatives/TripleAim/Pages/default.aspx
  • Triple Aim for Populations  http://www.ihi.org/Topics/TripleAim/Pages/default.aspx
  • Design of a Triple Aim Enterprise  http://www.ihi.org/Engage/Initiatives/TripleAim/PublishingImages/IHI_DesignofTripleAimEnterprise.JPG

 

NR 507 Weekwise Quizzes Week 1 – 7 (Version No. 4) – 2025 Question 1 After sexual transmission of HIV a person can be infected yet seronegative for

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NR 507 Weekwise Quizzes Week 1 – 7 (Version No. 4) – 2025

  

Question 1: After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.

Question 2: Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis?

Question 3: Which statement about vaccines is true?

Question 4: Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

Question 5: Which statement is true about fungal infections?

Question 6: What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

Question 7: In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of

Question 8: What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 9: Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

Question 10: A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies.

Question 11: Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n)

Question 12: In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?

Question 13: What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

Question 14: The effect that low serum albumin has on the central stress response is to

Question 15: Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

Question 16: Stress-age syndrome results in decreased

Question 17: Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful.

Question 18: Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?

Question 19: Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

Question 20: Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

Question 21: Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of

Question 22: What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-α) in cell metastasis?

Question 23: Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue?

Question 24: Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney?

Question 25: What percentage of children with cancer can be cured?

———————————————————

Question 1: Symptoms of polycythemia vera are mainly the result of

Question 2: Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal, usually because of

Question 3: What is the pathophysiologic process of aplastic anemia?

Question 4: Pernicious anemia generally requires continued therapy lasting

Question 5: The underlying disorder of _____ anemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.

Question 6: Which anemia produces small, pale erythrocytes?

Question 7: What change is seen in leukocytes during an allergic disorder (type I) often caused by asthma, hay fever, and drug reactions?

Question 8: Which of the following is a description consistent with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?

Question 9: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n)

Question 10: Which of the following is a description consistent with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?

Question 11: Erythroblastosis fetalis is defined as an

Question 12: In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult is _____ days.

Question 13: The sickle cell trait differs from sickle cell disease in that the child with sickle cell trait  

Question 14: Hemophilia B is caused by clotting factor _____ deficiency.

Question 15: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune process involving antibodies against

Question 16: G6PD and sickle cell disease are

Question 17: An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with:

Question 18: Which of the following is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein?

Question 19: In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?

Question 20: Which of the following can trigger an immune response within the bloodstream that can result in an embolus?

Question 21: When does most cardiovascular development occur?

Question 22: Which heart defect produces a systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border that transmits to the neck and left lower sternal border with an occasional ejection click?

Question 23: Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?

Question 24: An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?

Question 25: The foramen ovale is covered by a flap that creates a check valve allowing blood to flow unidirectionally from the _____ to the _____.

———————————————————

Question 5: In hemolytic anemia, jaundice occurs only when

Question 6: Clinical manifestations of mild to moderate splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, bronze-colored skin, and cardiac dysrhythmias are indicative of which anemia?

Question 8: Which proinflammatory cytokines are responsible for the development and maintenance of DIC?

Question 11: Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur if the mother is

Question 13: The type of anemia that occurs as a result of thalassemia is

Question 14: What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?

Question 17: The pulsus paradoxus that occurs as a result of pericardial effusion is significant because it reflects the impairment of the

Question 18: Atherosclerosis causes an aneurysm by

Question 20: What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that contributes to atherosclerosis?

Question 21: When does most cardiovascular development occur?

Question 25: When does systemic vascular resistance in infants begin to rise?

———————————————————

Question 3: The body compensates for anemia by

Question 4: In some anemias, the erythrocytes are present in various sizes, which is referred to as

Question 8: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n)

Question 12: Polycythemia occurs in a fetus because

Question 17: What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) resulting from myocarditis and infective endocarditis?

Question 18: Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?

Question 20: Which of the following can trigger an immune response within the bloodstream that can result in an embolus?

Question 25: What is the most important clinical manifestation of aortic coarctation in the neonate?

———————————————————

Question 1: When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated?

Question 2: How does the loss of chloride during vomiting cause metabolic alkalosis?

Question 3: At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the

Question 4: What is a major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for transmission of nerve impulses?

Question 5: Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of

Question 6: Water movement between the intracellular fluid compartment and the extracellular compartment is primarily a function of

Question 7: Which are indications of dehydration?

Question 8: A(n) _____ is a circumscribed area of suppuration and destruction of lung parenchyma.

Question 9: Which inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma?

Question 10: Clinical manifestations of pulmonary hypertension include

Question 11: _____ is a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury.

Question 12: Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of

Question 13: Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration?

Question 14: In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the

Question 15: Which of the following is a true statement?

Question 16: In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating

Question 17: Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg.

Question 18: Kussmaul respirations may be characterized as a respiratory pattern

Question 19: Which of the following statements about the advances in the treatment of RDS of the newborn is incorrect?

Question 20: Which of the following types of croup is most common?

Question 21: The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing

Question 22: What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?

Question 23: Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults.

Question 24: Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n)

Question 25: An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n)

———————————————————

Question 1: In hyperkalemia, cardiac rhythm changes are a direct result of

Question 3: Why are infants susceptible to significant losses in total body water (TBW)?

Question 5: Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign indicate

Question 6: At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the

Question 8: Dyspnea is not a result of

Question 11: The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with

Question 14: Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of

Question 19: What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?

Question 20: An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n)

Question 21: The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing

Question 22: Which immunoglobulin is present in childhood asthma?

Question 23: Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n)

Question 3: Why are infants susceptible to significant losses in total body water (TBW)?

Question 6: Which enzyme is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney when circulating blood volume is reduced?

Question 7: Water movement between the intracellular fluid compartment and the extracellular compartment is primarily a function of

Question 10: In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the

Question 16: High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through

—————————————————

Question 1: After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.

Question 2: Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis?

Question 3: Which statement about vaccines is true?

Question 4: Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

Question 5: Which statement is true about fungal infections?

Question 6: What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

Question 7: In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of

Question 8: What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 9: Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

Question 10: A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies.

Question 11: Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n)

Question 13: What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

Question 14: The effect that low serum albumin has on the central stress response is to

Question 15: Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

Question 16: Stress-age syndrome results in decreased

Question 17: Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful.

Question 18: Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?

Question 19: Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

Question 20: Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

Question 21: Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of

Question 22: What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-α) in cell metastasis?

Question 23: Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue?

Question 24: Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney?

Question 25: What percentage of children with cancer can be cured?

—————————————————

Question 1: What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

Question 4: Which statement is true about fungal infections?

Question 6: What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?

Question 7: Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

Question 8: What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 9: During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?

Question 11: In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of

Question 12: What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

Question 13: The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is

Question 14: Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?

Question 15: Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful.

Question 16: Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

Question 17: The effect that low serum albumin has on the central stress response is to

Question 18: Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that

Question 19: Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue?

Question 20: What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-α) in cell metastasis?

Question 21: Which cytokine is involved in producing cachexia syndrome?

Question 23: Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

Question 25: Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increases susceptibility to cancer except

—————————————————

Question 7: What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage?

Question 14: Stress-induced norepinephrine results in

Question 15: What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?

Question 19: Many cancers create a mutation of ras. What is ras?

Question 20: Which cytokine is involved in producing cachexia syndrome?

Question 21: By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?

Question 24: Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except

Question 11: What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

—————————————————

Question 1: When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated?

Question 3: In hyperkalemia, cardiac rhythm changes are a direct result of

Question 4: How does the loss of chloride during vomiting cause metabolic alkalosis?

Question 15: In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the

—————————————————

Question 1: A woman complains of chronic gastritis, fatigue, weight loss, and tingling in her fingers. Laboratory findings show low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, and a high mean corpuscular volume. These findings are consistent with _____ anemia.

Question 2: Symptoms of polycythemia vera are mainly the result of

Question 3: Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal, usually because of

Question 4: The underlying disorder of _____ anemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.

Question 5: What is the pathophysiologic process of aplastic anemia?

Question 6: Pernicious anemia generally requires continued therapy lasting

Question 7: Which proinflammatory cytokines are responsible for the development and maintenance of DIC?

Question 8: What change is seen in leukocytes during an allergic disorder (type I) often caused by asthma, hay fever, and drug reactions?

Question 9: Local signs and symptoms of Hodgkin disease–related lymphadenopathy are a result of

Question 10: What is the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency?

Question 11: Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur if the mother is

Question 12: The type of anemia that occurs as a result of thalassemia is

Question 13: The sickle cell trait differs from sickle cell disease in that the child with sickle cell trait

Question 14: Hemophilia B is caused by clotting factor _____ deficiency.

Question 15: In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult is _____ days.

Question 16: G6PD and sickle cell disease are

Question 17: Atherosclerosis causes an aneurysm by

Question 18: An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with:

Question 19: Which form of cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure?

Question 20: Which of the following can trigger an immune response within the bloodstream that can result in an embolus?

Question 21: The foramen ovale is covered by a flap that creates a check valve allowing blood to flow unidirectionally from the _____ to the _____.

Question 22: When does most cardiovascular development occur?

Question 23: When does systemic vascular resistance in infants begin to rise?

Question 24: What is the most important clinical manifestation of aortic coarctation in the neonate?

Question 25: Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?

NR 507 Weekwise Quizzes Week 1 – 7 (Version No. 3) – 2025 NR 507 Week No 1 Quiz 1 Question What of the

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NR 507 Weekwise Quizzes Week 1 – 7 (Version No. 3) – 2025

  

NR 507 Week No. 1 Quiz

1.  Question: What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

2.  Question: Which statement is true about fungal infections?

3.  Question: After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.

4.  Question: Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

5.  Question: What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?

6.  Question: Which statement about vaccines is true?

7.  Question: A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies.

8.  Question: During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?

9.  Question: Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

10.  Question: What is the mechanism in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

11.  Question: What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage?

12.  Question: In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?

13.  Question: What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

14.  Question: Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful.

15.  Question: What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?

16.  Question: Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?

17.  Question: Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

18.  Question: Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

19.  Question: Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue?

20.  Question: What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-) in cell metastasis?

21.  Question: In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

22.  Question: Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

23.  Question: Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of

24.  Question: Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except

25.  Question: Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increases susceptibility to cancer except

NR 507 Week No. 2 Quiz

1.  Question: Why are infants susceptible to significant losses in total body water (TBW)?

2.  Question: When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated?

3.  Question: What is a major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for transmission of nerve impulses?

4.  Question: Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of

5.  Question: Which are indications of dehydration?

6.  Question: Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign indicate

7.  Question: How does the loss of chloride during vomiting cause metabolic alkalosis?

8.  Question: In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the

9.  Question: Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration?

10.  Question: Kussmaul respirations may be characterized as a respiratory pattern

11.  Question: Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg.

12.  Question: _____ is a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury.

13.  Question: Dyspnea is not a result of

14.  Question: High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through

15.  Question: Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of

16.  Question: Which inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma?

17.  Question: In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating

18.  Question: The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with

19.  Question: Which of the following types of croup is most common?

20.  Question: Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults.

21.  Question: Which immunoglobulin is present in childhood asthma?

22.  Question: What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?

23.  Question: Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n)

24.  Question: The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing

25.  Question: An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n)

NR 507 Week No. 3 Quiz

1.  Question: In hemolytic anemia, jaundice occurs only when

2.  Question: Which anemia produces small, pale erythrocytes?

3.  Question: Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal, usually because of

4.  Question: Clinical manifestations of mild to moderate splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, bronze-colored skin, and cardiac dysrhythmias are indicative of which anemia?

5.  Question: Pernicious anemia generally requires continued therapy lasting

6.  Question: The underlying disorder of _____ anemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.

7.  Question: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n)

8.  Question: Which of the following is a description consistent with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?

9.  Question: What change is seen in leukocytes during an allergic disorder (type I) often caused by asthma, hay fever, and drug reactions?

10.  Question: What is the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency?

11.  Question: The sickle cell trait differs from sickle cell disease in that the child with sickle cell trait

12.  Question: In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult is _____ days.

13.  Question: Polycythemia occurs in a fetus because

14.  Question: Erythroblastosis fetalis is defined as an

15.  Question: What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?

16.  Question: G6PD and sickle cell disease are

17.  Question: In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?

18.  Question: Which form of cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure?

19.  Question: What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?

20.  Question: Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?

21.  Question: Which heart defect produces a systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border that transmits to the neck and left lower sternal border with an occasional ejection click?

22.  Question: When does systemic vascular resistance in infants begin to rise?

23.  Question: An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?

24.  Question: Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?

25.  Question: What is the most important clinical manifestation of aortic coarctation in the neonate?

NR 507 Week No. 5 Quiz

1. Question: Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located

2.  Question: Where is oxytocin synthesized?

3.  Question: A surgical individual just arrived on the unit from the postanesthesia care unit. This person’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the person suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?

4.  Question: What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?

5.  Question: What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor (PRF)?

6.  Question: A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of which hormone?

7.  Question: Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?

8.  Question: Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the

9.  Question: The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is the _____ pituitary.

10.  Question: Which mineral is needed for the synthesis of thyroid hormones?

11.  Question: When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone.

12.  Question: Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?

13.  Question: The first lab test that indicates type 1 diabetes is causing the development of diabetic nephropathy is

14.  Question: The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the

15.  Question: Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone (GH) in adults?

16.  Question: What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?

17.  Question: Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if a person is experiencing syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

18.  Question: Which of the following laboratory values is consistently low in a client with diabetes insipidus (DI)?

19.  Question: The effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) include solute

20.  Question: The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in Graves disease is usually

21.  Question: Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of

22.  Question: The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is

23.  Question: Which of the following clinical manifestations is not common to both diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS)?

24.  Question: A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?

25.  Question: Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteopenia are each caused by a

NR 507 Week No. 6 Quiz

1.  Question: A(n) _____ fracture is a fracture at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality, usually by a force that would not normally cause a fracture.

2.  Question: Which of the following attaches skeletal muscle to bone?

3.  Question: _____ is the temporary displacement of two bones in which the bone surfaces partially lose contact.

4.  Question: Which disorder is characterized by the formation of abnormal new bone at an accelerated rate beginning with excessive resorption of spongy bone?

5.  Question: What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

6.  Question: Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by

7.  Question: Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of RANKL on osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

8.  Question: Cerebral palsy is usually a result of

9.  Question: An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children.

10.  Question: Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane?

11.  Question: Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with

12.  Question: Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is likely inherited from one’s

13.  Question: The _____ is cartilage that retains the ability to form and calcify new cartilage and deposit bone until the skeleton matures.

14.  Question: The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value?

15.  Question: Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta?

16.  Question: Chickenpox may be followed years later by

17.  Question: Scleroderma is more common in women and is associated with a(n)

18.  Question: Which immunoglobulin is found in skin biopsy with immunofluorescent observation of people with discoid lupus erythematosus?

19.  Question: Keloids are sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, progressively enlarging scars caused by excessive amounts of _____ in the corneum during connective tissue repair.

20.  Question: Which cells of the dermis secrete connective tissue matrix?

21.  Question: Which clinical manifestation is considered the hallmark of atopic dermatitis?

22.  Question: Thrush is a superficial infection that commonly occurs in children and is caused by

23.  Question: What is the cause of chickenpox?

24.  Question: Which contagious disease creates a primary skin lesion that is a pinpointed macule, papule, or wheal with hemorrhagic puncture site?

25.  Question: What is a common source of tinea corporis?

NR 507 Week No. 7 Quiz

1.  Question: Dilated and sluggish pupils, widening pulse pressure, and bradycardia are clinical findings evident of which stage of intracranial hypertension?

2.  Question: What are the areas of the brain that mediate several cognitive functions, including vigilance, reasoning, and executive functions?

3.  Question: Subarachnoid hemorrhage causes communicating hydrocephalus by obstructing

4.  Question: Which description is consistent with a complex partial seizure?

5.  Question: Which disease process is infratentorial?

6.  Question: Most dysphasias are associated with cerebrovascular accidents involving which artery?

7.  Question: Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities?

8.  Question: With receptive dysphasia (fluent), the individual is able to

9.  Question: What are the initial clinical manifestations noted immediately after a spinal cord injury?

10.  Question: A man was in an automobile accident in which his forehead struck the windshield. A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to the _____ region.

11.  Question: Why does a person who has a spinal cord injury experience faulty control of sweating?

12.  Question: Which disorder has clinical manifestations that include decreased consciousness for up to 6 hours as well as retrograde and posttraumatic amnesia?

13.  Question: Which is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

14.  Question: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is used to treat depression

15.  Question: What are the most common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

16.  Question: Anterior midline defects of neural tube closure cause developmental defects in the

17.  Question: The neural groove closes dorsally during the _____ week of gestational life.

18.  Question: Spina bifida occulta is characterized by a(n)

19.  Question: Intussusception causes intestinal obstruction by

20.  Question: _____ vomiting is caused by direct stimulation of the vomiting center by neurologic lesions involving the brainstem.

21.  Question: Which statement is false regarding the pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis?

22.  Question: Which disorder is characterized by an increase in the percentages in T cells and complement together with IgA and IgM antigliadin antibodies found in jejunum fluid?

23.  Question: Which of the following medications compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis?

24.  Question: Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of the _____ nervous system.

25.  Question: An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that after the infant passed a normal stool, the stools look like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect?

Nursing Ch 11 – 2025 Read Chapter 11 APA FORMAT AND REFERENCE 2 1 Why is the subject of workplace health

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Nursing Ch 11 – 2025

Read Chapter 11

APA FORMAT AND REFERENCE 2

1. Why is the subject of workplace health and safety of concern to nurses? 

How are these concepts related to patient safety and patient outcomes? 

2. What action is suggested when you are faced with an angry or hostile coworker?

3. Why is substance misuse among nurses a serious concern? What is the most appropriate way to handle a suspicion that a coworker may be involved in serious substance misuse?

4. What is the most common physical injury experienced by LPNs and nursing assistants? How can a nurse manager help staff avoid physical injury at work? 

5. Describe several examples of sexual harassment in the workplace. Discuss methods of dealing with these instances.

6. Review the policies and procedures on the following safety issues in your current clinical rotation. Compare with other students in the class. What are the similarities and differences? What might this mean in terms of workplace safety? 

• Latex allergies

• Needlestick injuries

• Violence 

7. Go to the ANA website and explore the sections on workplace and patient safety under the heading “Professional Nursing Practice.” 

Which concepts discussed in these sections are particularly important to the beginning RN? Why? 

8. Interview one of the staff nurses on your unit. Explore his or her feelings and concerns related to the following topics. Based on the comments, develop strategies to address the concerns.

• Substance abuse among nurses

• Emergency preparation 

• Quality of work life within the organization

Discussion 8 – 2025 Instruction Please look at the American Academy of Gastroenterology Clinical Guidelines for the updated H Pylori

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Discussion 8 – 2025

 Instruction: 

Please look at the American Academy of Gastroenterology Clinical Guidelines for the updated H.Pylori therapy. This is the website and you may copy it and paste it in the internet to get the article journal with the treatment guidelines: 

http://gi.org/wp-content/uploads/2017/02/ACGManagementofHpyloriGuideline2017.pdf

This is an example

 

GI Case Study: H. Pylori infection

Questions: As an NP student, needs to determine the medications for recurrent H. Pylori infection.

According to the ACC/AHA Guidelines, what medication should this patient be prescribed? Write her complete prescriptions using the prescription writing format.

ACC/AHA Guidelines

Chief complaint: “ I have recurrent H. Pylori infection”.

HPI: M.C. a 46-year-old hispanic female presents to the GI clinic for complaint of recurrent H. Pylori infection. She was treated about 2 ½ months ago with H. Pylori triple therapy and failed treatment. She has pmhx of dyspepsia, GERD.

She also indicates that she has noticed that her symptoms of dyspepsia are worsening for past 2 months. She has associated her symptoms with nausea, upset stomach with all foods.

Denies associated symptoms of hematochezia, melena, hemoptysis, abdominal pain, fever, chills, pain or any other symptoms.

PMH:

H. Pylori infection gastritis

Diabetes Mellitus, type 2

Surgeries: None

Allergies: NKDA

Vaccination History:

She receives an annual flu shot. Last flu shot was this year

Social history:

High school graduate, married and no children. He frequently eats out in restaurants. He drinks one 4-ounce glass of red wine daily. He is a former smoker that stopped 3 years ago.

Family history:

Both parents are alive. Father has history of DM type 2, Tinea Pedis.

mother alive and has history of atopic dermatitis, tinea corporis and tinea pedis.

ROS:

Constitutional: Negative for fever. Negative for chills.

Respiratory: No Shortness of breath. No Orthopnea

Cardiovascular: No edema. No palpitations.

Gastrointestinal: No vomiting. +Dyspepsia. + Nausea. No constipation. No melena. No abdominal pain.

Skin: No lesions. No rash. No itching.

Psychiatric: No anxiety. No depression.

Physical examination:

Vital Signs

Height: 5 feet 5 inches Weight: 140 pounds BMI: 31 obesity, BP 110/70 T 98.0 po P 80 R 22, non-labored

HEENT: Normocephalic/Atraumatic, PERRL, EOMI; No teeth loss seen. Gums no redness.

NECK: Neck supple, no palpable masses, no lymphadenopathy, no thyroid enlargement.

LUNGS: Lungs clear bilaterally. Equal breath sounds. Symmetrical respiration. No respiratory distress.

HEART: Normal S1 with S2 during expiration. Pulses are 2+ in upper extremities. No edema.

ABDOMEN: No abdominal distention. Nontender. Bowel sounds + x 4 quadrants. No organomegaly. Normal contour; No palpable masses.

GENITOURINARY: No CVA tenderness bilaterally. GU exam deferred.

MUSCULOSKELETAL: Slow gait but steady. No Kyphosis.

SKIN: Dry. Intact.  

PSYCH: Normal affect. Cooperative.

Labs day of visit:: Hgb 15.2, Hct 40%, K+ 4.0, Na+137, Serum Creatinine normal 1.0, AST/ALT normal. TSH 3.7 normal, glucose 98 normal

A:

Primary Diagnosis: Recurrent H. Pylori infection gastritis

Secondary Diagnoses:

Dyspepsia

Differential Diagnosis:

Peptic Ulcer Disease

Previous medication plan: two months ago and failed.

  1. Clarithromycin 500 mg po BID for 2 weeks
  2. Omeprazole 40 mg po BID for 2 weeks and then po daily.
  3. Cipro 500 mg po BID for 2 weeks

Plan: Tests

Pt had EGD done 2 weeks ago that showed H. Pylori positive gastritis in biopsy results.

Urea breath test 8 weeks after treat with H. Pylori medications. Pt needs to stop PPI’s 2 weeks prior to Urea Breath test.

Labs: No new labs are needed.  

Referrals: may refer based on effect of medication therapy given for 2 weeks.

Follow up: return to office in 8 weeks to reevaluate her symptoms.

Health Discussion – 2025 Media Campaigns in Public Health Instructions for assignment Select a public health

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Health Discussion – 2025

Media Campaigns in Public Health 

Instructions for assignment:

Select a public health campaign such as anti-smoking, drinking and driving, texting and driving, Got Milk, VERB, anti-drug, or anti-bullying. After you have selected and reviewed details about this campaign, evaluate the campaign to determine which theoretical PUBLIC HEALTH model was used. 

2-3 paragraphs, APA format, 1 reference required