NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 1 – 2025 NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 1 Question 1 Which of

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NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 1 – 2025

   

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 1

Question 1:  Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline?

a. Creating a physician expert panel
b. Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence
c. Conducting an external review of a guideline
d. Developing evidence-based tables

Question 2:  African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?

a. Inhaled corticosteroids

b. Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators

c. Leukotriene receptor agonist
d. Oral corticosteroid

Question 3:  Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?

a. The tumor size cannot be evaluated, the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes, and the distant spread cannot be evaluated.
b. The cancer is in situ, it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread otherwise cannot be evaluated.
c. The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.
d. The cancer is about 5 cm in size, nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated, and there is no evidence of distant spreading.

Question 4:  Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?

a. Meclizine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Diamox
d. Promethazine

Question 5:  Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart that is in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
a. Filiform/digitate wart.

b. Dysplastic cervical lesion.

c. Condyloma accuminata.
d. Koilocytosis.

Question 6:  Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?

a. Dementia

b. Alzheimer’s disease

c. Parkinson’s disease

d. Delirium

Question 7:  You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?

a. “Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”
b. “Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”
c. “Drive to the emergency room (ER) now.”
d. “Call 911.”

Question 8:  A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?
a. NSAIDs

b. Beets

c. Vitamin A
d. Red meat

Question 9:  Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?

a. Fluid restriction
b. Hemodialysis 4 days a week
c. High-protein diet
d. Maintain blood pressure at 120/80

Question 10:  Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?

a. Glaucoma

b. Increased sperm quality

c. Bladder cancer

d. Eczema

Question 11: A chronic cough lasts longer than:

a. 3 weeks

b. 1 month

c. 6 months
d. 1 year

Question 12: The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?

a.Parkinson’s disease

b. Alzheimer’s disease

c. A CVA

d. Bell’s palsy

Question 13: When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?

a. Tension

b. Migraine

c. Cluster

d. Stress

Question 14: Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?

a. African American men

b. Scandinavian men and women

c. Caucasian women

d. Asian men

Question 15: The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:

a. Pharyngitis

b. Allergies

c. Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)

d. Perforation of the eardrum

Question 16:  Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:

a. Severe asthma.
b. A common valvular lesion.
c. Severe hypertension.
d. A previous coronary artery bypass graft (CABG).

Question 17: A 34-year-old patient was treated for a urinary tract infection (UTI) and has not responded to antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should be taken next?
a. Send a urine specimen for microscopy looking for fungal colonies.
b. Increase the dose of antibiotic.
c. Order a cytoscopy.
d. Order a different antibiotic.

Question 18: Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?

a. It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
b. A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
c. A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
d. The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.

Question 19: Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the ‘mask of pregnancy’?

a. It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone duringpregnancy.

b. This condition only occurs on the face.

c. Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration.

d. It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.

Question 20: Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?

a. “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
b. “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
c. “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
d. “We’ll have to do some tests.”

Question 21: A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:

a. Stage 2 hypertension

b. Hypertensive

c. Normal in healthy older adults

d. Acceptable if the patient has DM

Question 22: When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, theclinician should stress that the tablets should remain in thelight-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and shouldnot be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are orcould become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottlemust be dated and discarded after how many months?

a. 1 month

b. 3 months

c. 6 months

d. As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever

Question 23: Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?

a. He should stop smoking today.

b. He should stop smoking tomorrow.

c. His quit date should be in 1 week.

d. He will be ready to quit after the Frst 30 days

Question 24: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?

a. Spores

c. Pseudohyphae
b. Leukocytes

d. Epithelial cells

Question 25: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

a. No activity at all.
b. A blank stare.
c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily.
d. The attack usually lasts several minutes.

Question 26: Which medication used for scabies is safe for children 2 months and older?

a. Permethrin cream

b. Lindane

c. Crotamiton lotion and cream

d. Ivermectin

Question 27: The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis?

a. Viral conjunctivitis

b. Keratoconjunctivitis

c. Bacterial conjunctivitis
d. Allergic conjunctivitis

Question 28: Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?

a. “Most patients have complete recovery in a few weeks to a few months.”
b. “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
c. “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
d. “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”

Question 29: How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures and the drug level is adequate

a. Every 3 months
b. Every 6 months
c. Annually
d. Whenever there is a problem

Question 30:  Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 31: The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?

a. Repeat the test.
b. Refer to a nephrologist.
c. Measure the serum protein.
d. Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Question 32:  Which cranial nerve is afected in a patient with acerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?

a. CN V

b. CN VII

c. CN IX

d. CN X

Question 33: Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered for a patient suspected of having bladder cancer?
a. KUB (kidneys, ureter, bladder) x-ray

b. Cystoscopy with biopsy

c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Urine tumor marker (NMP22)

Question 34: The “B” in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents:

a. Biopsy. 

b. Best practice. 

c. Boundary.
d. Border irregularity.

Question 35: Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?

a. Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients mustnever drive again.

b. After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.

c. Each state has diferent laws governing driving forindividuals with a seizure disorder.

d. These persons may drive but never alone.

Question 36: Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?

a. Greater than 30

b. Greater than 40

c. Greater than 50
d. Greater than 60

Question 37: The most common etiologic organism for community-acquired pneumonia is:
 

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Beta hemolytic streptococcus
C. Mycoplasma
D. Methicillin resistant staphylococcus 

Question 38: Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?

a. Serum calcium

b. Electrocardiogram (ECG)

c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone test

d. Complete blood cell count

Question 39: A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?

a. The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
b. Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
c. A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
d. The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.

Question 40: Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?
a. Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
b. Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
c. If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
d. All of the above

Question 41: Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of chronic renal failure (CRF)?
a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
b. Electrolytes
c. Creatinine clearance
d. Urinalysis

Question 42: Marci has a wart on her hand. She says she  heard something about “silver duct tape therapy.” What do you tell her about his?

a. It is an old wives’ tale.
b. It is used as a last resort.
c. Salicylic acid is more effective.
d. It is a simple treatment that should be tried first.

Question 43: What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A b-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?
a. Penicillin

b. Quinolone

c. Cephalosporin
d. Macrolide

Question 44: Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?

a. Perforation of the tympanic membrane

b. Otosclerosis

c. Cholesteatoma
d. Presbycusis

Question 45: Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”

a. An ulcer

b. A fissure

c. Lichenification
d. An excoriation

Question 46: A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night visio0n, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?

a. The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
b. The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
c. Physical diagnosis relies on goniscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
d. Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.

Question 47: The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?

a. IgA

b. IgE

c. IgG
d. IgM

Question 48: A patient is seen with a sudden onset of ±ank painaccompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. Inaddition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should beadded to the list of diferential diagnoses?

a. Pancreatitis

b. Peptic ulcer disease

c. Diverticulitis

d. All of the above

Question 49: Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?

a. B-type natriuretic peptide

b. C-reactive protein

c. Serum albumin

d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Question 50: You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?

a. Baker phenomenon

b. Arnold reflex

c. cough reflex

d. Tragus reflex

Nursing Theory – 2025 Callista Roy and Betty Neuman s theories view the person individual group or community as a holistic adaptive system that

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Nursing Theory – 2025

Callista Roy and Betty Neuman’s theories view the person (individual, group, or community) as a holistic adaptive system that constantly interacts with the internal and external environments. Both theories view the person as being the center of nursing and present health/wellness and illness as parts of the same continuum, however there are some key assumptions that are different. As such, select one of the theories and identify 1 assumption of the theory and discuss how the care rendered for this patient by an advanced practice nurse would be structured (assessment, diagnosis, planning, intervention, evaluation) according to the theory. Give 2 specific examples of interventions that you anticipate will be included in the patient’s care.   

Mr. Reynolds is a 32 year-old male patient hospitalized on the orthopedic unit of the hospital. He is status-post motorcycle accident and right leg below the knee amputation. He has a history of Depression and Schizophrenia. He is currently separated from his wife and estranged from his family. He is awaiting social work for placement in a rehabilitation facility, where he will continue his recovery.

I need at least 2 references 

Assgn-WK6(G) – 2025 Applying Current Literature to Clinical Practice Psychiatric mental health nursing practice is

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Assgn-WK6(G) – 2025

                              Applying Current Literature to Clinical Practice

Psychiatric mental health nursing practice is one of the newest disciplines to be licensed to provide psychotherapy As such, the majority of psychotherapy research is centered on other disciplines such as psychology, social work, marriage/family therapy, art therapy, psychiatry, and mental health counseling. This makes it essential for you to be able to translate current literature from other disciplines into your own clinical practice. For this Assignment, you practice this skill by examining literature on group work and group therapy and considering its applicability to your own clients.

                                                     Learning Objectives

Students will:

· Evaluate the application of current literature to clinical practice

To prepare:

· Review this week’s Learning Resources and reflect on the insights they provide  

   on group work and group therapy.

· Select one of the articles from the Learning Resources to evaluate for this  

   assignment.

Note: In nursing practice, it is not uncommon to review current literature and share findings with your colleagues. Approach this Assignment as though you were presenting the information to your colleagues.

   

                                                             Assignment

    In a 5- to 10-slide PowerPoint presentation, address the following:

o  Provide an overview of the article you selected, including answers to the  

    following questions:

o What type of group was discussed?

o Who were the participants in the group? Why were they selected?

o What was the setting of the group?

o How often did the group meet?

o What was the duration of the group therapy?

o What curative factors might be important for this group and why?

o What “exclusion criteria” did the authors mention?

o Explain the findings/outcomes of the study in the article. Include whether this  

    will translate into practice with your own client groups. If so, how? If not, why?

o Explain whether the limitations of the study might impact your ability to use the 

   findings/outcomes presented in the article.

Note: The presentation should be 5–10 slides, not including the title and reference slides. Include presenter notes (no more than a half page per slide) and use tables and/or diagrams where appropriate. Be sure to support your work with specific citations from the article you selected. Support your presentation with evidence-based literature.

                                                                     Learning Resources

Required Readings

Wheeler, K. (Ed.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice. New York, NY: Springer.

  • Chapter 11, “Group Therapy” (Review pp.      407–428.)

Yalom, I. D., & Leszcz, M. (2005). The theory and practice of group psychotherapy (5th ed.). New York, NY: Basic Books.

Chapter 1, “The Therapeutic Factors” (pp. 1–18)

Yalom, I. D., & Leszcz, M. (2005). The theory and practice of group psychotherapy (5th ed.). New York, NY: Basic Books.

Chapter 2, “Interpersonal Learning” (pp. 19–52)

Yalom, I. D., & Leszcz, M. (2005). The theory and practice of group psychotherapy (5th ed.). New York, NY: Basic Books.

Chapter 3, “Group Cohesiveness” (pp. 53–76)

Leszcz, M., & Kobos, J. C. (2008). Evidence-based group psychotherapy: Using AGPA’s practice guidelines to enhance clinical effectiveness. Journal of Clinical Psychology, 64(11), 1238–1260. doi:10.1002/jclp.20531

Marmarosh, C. L. (2014). Empirical research on attachment in group psychotherapy: Moving the field forward. Psychotherapy, 51(1), 88–92. doi:10.1037/a0032523

Microsoft. (2017). Basic tasks for creating a PowerPoint presentation. Retrieved from https://support.office.com/en-us/article/Basic-tasks-for-creating-a-PowerPoint-2013-presentation-efbbc1cd-c5f1-4264-b48e-c8a7b0334e36

Tasca, G. A. (2014). Attachment and group psychotherapy: Introduction to a special section. Psychotherapy, 51(1), 53–56. doi:10.1037/a0033015.

Tasca, G. A., Francis, K., & Balfour, L. (2014). Group psychotherapy levels of interventions: A clinical process commentary. Psychotherapy, 51(1), 25–29. doi:10.1037/a0032520

You will select one of the following articles on group therapy to evaluate for this week’s Assignment.

Bélanger, C., Laporte, L., Sabourin, S., & Wright, J. (2015). The effect of cognitive-behavioral group marital therapy on marital happiness and problem solving self-appraisal. American Journal of Family Therapy, 43(2), 103–118. doi:10.1080/01926187.2014.956614

Himelhoch, S., Medoff, D., & Oyeniyi, G. (2007). Efficacy of group psychotherapy to reduce depressive symptoms among HIV-infected individuals: A systematic review and meta-analysis. AIDS Patient Care & Stds, 21(10), 732–739. doi:10.1089/apc.2007.0012

Pessagno, R. A., & Hunker, D. (2013). Using short-term group psychotherapy as an evidence-based intervention for first-time mothers at risk for postpartum depression. Perspectives in Psychiatric Care, 49(3), 202–209. doi:10.1111/j.1744-6163.2012.00350.x

Sayın, A., Candansayar, S., & Welkin, L. (2013). Group psychotherapy in women with a history of sexual abuse: What did they find helpful? Journal of Clinical Nursing, 22(23/24), 3249–3258. doi:10.1111/jocn.12168

Yildiran, H., & Holt, R. R. (2015). Thematic analysis of the effectiveness of an inpatient mindfulness group for adults with intellectual disabilities. British Journal of Learning Disabilities, 43(1), 49–54. doi:10.1111/bld.12085

Nursing Finances – 2025 Throughout this course you ve examined the importance of anticipating financial fluctuations that

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Nursing Finances – 2025

 

Throughout this course, you’ve examined the importance of anticipating financial fluctuations that may impact your organization’s ability to provide services. While financial managers have no time machines or crystal balls, they do have expense forecasts. Expense forecasting is one of the preeminent tools that financial managers can use to prepare their organizations for future fiscal turbulence. In this Assignment, you will examine a scenario and generate a corresponding expense forecast in Excel.

Before pursuing an opportunity or making a major purchase, financial decision makers must first ascertain if the expenditures are justified. Determining whether a new process, system, or purchase will yield worthwhile returns is no easy task. However, managers have a variety of tools to help them decide whether the new expenditure is warranted. Analyzing a venture’s benefit/cost ratio, marginal profit and loss statement, and break-even points enable nurse managers to make educated decisions about how they choose to commit their funds.

Note: For those Assignments in this course that require you to perform calculations you must:Use the Excel spreadsheet template for the Week 3 assignment
Show all your calculations and formulas in the spreadsheet.
Answer any questions included with the problems (as text in the Excel spreadsheet).

 

Expense Forecasting

In this Application Assignment you calculate scenarios focusing on benefit/cost ratio analysis, marginal profit and loss statements, and break-even analysis. For these scenarios, you will utilize the provided figures to perform calculations and then make recommendations about the viability of the investment opportunities 

Expense Forecasting Scenario

Your department has performed 20,000 procedures during the first six months (January–June) of 20X1. Spending during that period of time was $210,000 for fixed expense items and $1,200,000 for variable expense items. Of those amounts, $50,000 of fixed expense money was spent on preparing for a Joint Commission survey. Volume is anticipated to be 10% higher in the second half of the year. On November 1st, two new procedure technicians will begin work. The salary and fringe benefit costs for each are $96,000/year. Based on the information provided, prepare an expense forecast for 20X1.

Annualization for Fixed:  (Adjusted Total for Year to Date Expense/6) * 12 =Total Annualized Amounts

Annualization for Variable (Adjusted Total for Year to Date Expense/ 20,000) * 40,000 =Total Annualized Amounts.

Financial Analysis Cycle

Marginal Profit and Loss Statement Scenario

You are examining a proposal for a new business opportunity – a new procedure for which demand is expected to be 1,400 units the first year, growing by 600 units a year thereafter. The price charged per procedure is $1,000. The collection rate is anticipated to be 80%. Each procedure consumes $300 of supplies. Salary cost is estimated to cost $540,000 each year, fringe benefits are 25% of salaries, rent for the facility is $55,000/yr and operating cost are $120,000/yr.

Questions:

  1. Develop a marginal profit and loss statement for this business opportunity.Based on that analysis, should this opportunity be pursued?

Break-Even Analysis Scenario

You can charge $1,075 for a new service. Demand is anticipated to be 8,000 units a year. Your business is able to handle up to 16,500 units annually, so capacity should not be a problem. The average collection rate is 80%. The new service has annual fixed costs of $4,700,000. Variable cost per unit of service is $420.

Question: Use break-even analysis to determine if this new service is financially viable. If the business is not financially viable, what steps could you take to make a case to proceed with implementation?  Explain your decision.

Benefit/Cost Ratio Analysis Scenario

You are considering the acquisition of a new piece of equipment with a useful life of five years. This new technology will make your clinical operation more efficient and allow for a reduction of 10 FTEs. The equipment purchase price is $4,500,000 plus 10% installation fee. The purchase price includes service for the first year, an item that has an annual cost of $10,000. There is a potential for additional volume of 150,000 units in the first year, growing by 30,000 each year thereafter. The price charged per unit is $15.00 with a 50% collection rate. The staff being eliminated are paid $12.50 per hour. The fringe benefits rate is 20%. The hurdle rate is 7.5%.

Questions: After reviewing Dr. Ward’s Video and the calculations below, please answer the following questions:

  • What is meant by  benefit/cost ratio, average payback period and ROI  and why are the all  important to understand when purchasing new equipment?
  • Based on this information, would you pursue this opportunity?
  • Explain your decision  in 250-500 words in the text box below.

References:

 

Baker, J. J., Baker, R. W., & Dworkin, N. R.  (2018). Health care finance: Basic  tools for nonfinancial managers (5th ed.). Burlington, MA: Jones and  Bartlett Learning.

Chapter 14, “Trend Analysis, Common Sizing, and Forecasted Data” (pp. 149-160)
The focus of this chapter is the use of trend analysis and forecasting to develop future budgets and make financial decisions about capital purchases, programs, and personnel.
Chapter 15, “Using Comparative Data” (pp. 161-173)
In this chapter, you are introduced to the criteria for identifying other health care organizations that are comparable to your own. Data from these organizations can then be used to evaluate your own organizational performance.
Chapter 19, “Estimates, Benchmarking, and Other Measurement Tools” (pp. 223-231)
In this chapter, you continue exploring the concept of financial benchmarking. The chapter focuses on the importance of benchmarking for identifying performance gaps.

Zelman, W., McCue, M., & Glick, N. (2009). Financial management of health care organizations: An introduction to fundamental tools, concepts, and applications (3rd ed.). Hoboken, NJ: Jossey-Bass.
Retrieved from the Walden Library databases.
Chapter 5, “Working Capital Management” (pp. 187–231)
This chapter examines the concept of working capital. The authors explore the specifics of current assets and the management of the working capital cycle.
Chapter 11, “Responsibility Accounting” (pp. 468–497)
Review: This chapter explores the trend toward the decentralization of health care organizations and the challenges this presents. This chapter also describes responsibility centers, or organizational units intended to achieve specific tasks.

Mulva, S., & Dai, J. (2009) Health care facility benchmarking. HERD, 3(1), 28–37.
Reprinted by permission of Sage Publications via the Copyright Clearance Center.

This article describes a national health care facility’s benchmarking program. It is designed to compare measures of capital project performance.

Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality. (2013). Measuring and benchmarking clinical performance. Retrieved from www.ahrq.gov

Ettorchi-Tardy, A., Levif, M., & Michel, P. (2012). Benchmarking: A Method for Continuous Quality Improvement in Health. Healthcare Policy, e101-e119. Retrieved fromhttp://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3359088/

Approach to care – 2025 Write a paper 1 750 2 000 words describing the approach to care of cancer In

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Approach to care – 2025

 

Write a paper (1,750-2,000 words) describing the approach to care of cancer. In addition, include the following in your paper:

  1. Describe the diagnosis and staging of cancer.
  2. Describe at least three complications of cancer, the side effects of treatment, and methods to lessen physical and psychological effects.
  3. Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a grading rubric. Instructors will be using the
rubric to grade the assignment; therefore, students should review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment.

You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Refer to the directions in the Student Success Center. No Plagiarism

First Steps on Becoming a Grassroots Lobbyist/Advocate for Health Care Policy – 2025 First Steps on Becoming a Grassroots Lobbyist Advocate for Health Care Policy This assignment has two

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First Steps on Becoming a Grassroots Lobbyist/Advocate for Health Care Policy – 2025

 

First Steps on Becoming a Grassroots Lobbyist/Advocate for Health Care Policy

This assignment has two parts, numbered below. Write each question as a new topic area, then follow with a paragraph or two to answer the question. You may find it necessary to search for answers to the questions outside of the assigned reading. Be sure to use APA guidelines for writing style, spelling and grammar, and citation of sources.

Tasks:

  1. Imagine that you are going to make a visit to your representative in Congress. Develop a one-page document that supports your position on the AHCA that you would leave with your representative or his or her aide when you make your visit. This one-pager, also called a “leave behind,” should state your position clearly in bullet points and give your reasons why your position is preferred. This “leave behind” should have 1 inch margins and utilize 14-point font throughout. If you were making this visit in person, you would present your “leave behind” to the person with whom you speak during your visit. Include a second page that describes your rationale for the position in your “leave behind” page supported by at least two journal articles.
  2. Write a two-page brief to describe the scenario surrounding your legislative visit. Understanding the political affiliation of your representative, include answers to the following:
    • Was your member in support or in opposition to the AHCA?
    • State three points that you would cover in support or opposition to your representative’s position.
    • How does your nursing experience influence the advocacy position that you take on the AHCA?

Submission Details:

  • Submit your response in a 4-page Microsoft Word document.
  • Name your document SU_NSG4068_W3_Project_LastName_FirstInitial.doc.
  • Submit your document to the Submissions Area by the due date assigned.
  • Cite sources in the APA format on a separate page.

nursing – 2025 For this week s discussion assignment you will explore the characteristics of Early

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nursing – 2025

For this week’s discussion assignment, you will explore the characteristics of Early Renaissance art in both Northern and Southern Europe. Address each part of the assignment below:Part 1
Two of the great innovations of the Renaissance in painting were the artist’s ability to depict a more contemporary world, and to create the illusion of a three-dimensional world in a painting. By studying and comparing paintings created in Italy from the fourteenth and the fifteenth centuries, you can see how this innovation developed:Giotto. Lamentation Fresco in the Scrovegni (Arena) Chapel, 1305–06Masaccio, The Tribute Money, c. 1427Perugino, Christ Giving the Keys to St. Peter, 1481In a minimum of 2 well-developed paragraphs, identify and describe at least 3 specific details or elements that progressively illustrate the artist’s concern for depicting a more natural world and for creating the illusion of three-dimensional space on the two-dimensional surface of the painting.Part 2
As we learned this week, art historians analyze a work of art using a specific vocabulary to describe its physical and visual properties, and by interpreting its subject matter, symbolism, and socio-historical context. Select one of the following paintings:Jan Van Eyck, Double Portrait of Giovanni Arnolfini and His Wife, 1434Master of Flémalle, Mérode Altarpiece, 1425-28Hugo van der Goes, Portinari Altarpiece, 1474-76For your selected painting:In a paragraph of 4-6 sentences, describe the composition of the painting, including its use of color and light, and the representation of space. Explain why some artistic elements in the painting look realistic to you and some do not look realistic. Discuss whether the figures fit into the space, whether their movements seem believable, whether their clothes fit their bodies properly, and whether there are shadows that make sense.Read about your selected painting in the course textbook and/or through reliable online resources. In a paragraph of 4-6 sentences, describe the overall subject matter of the painting; the meaning of some of the objects in the painting; and any social, historical, political, and/or religious factors that are important to understanding the painting. Be sure to provide citations for any outside sources you reference in this part of your response.Respond to both parts of the assignment thoroughly, making sure to use information from the readings and the lectures. All responses should be in complete sentence form, using proper spelling and grammar.As soon as possible, review and comment on the work of two of your peers. In your comments, consider areas you would suggest for expansion or clarification.

NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam latest 2017 – 2025 Question 1 Question The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is

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NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam latest 2017 – 2025

  

Question

1. Question :

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is:

Alendronate (Fosamax)

Ibandronate (Boniva)

Calcium carbonate

Raloxifene (Evista)

Question 2. Question :

Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:

Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses

Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses

Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses

Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses

Question 3. Question :

Some research supports that testosterone replacement therapy may be indicated in which of the following diagnoses in men?

Age-related decrease in cognitive functioning

Metabolic syndrome

Decreased muscle mass in aging men

All of the above

Question 4. Question :

The chemicals that promote the spread of pain locally include _________.

serotonin

norepinephrine

enkephalin

neurokinin A

Question 5. Question :

The DEA:

Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances

Regulates NP prescribing at the state level

Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label

Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing

Question 6. Question :

The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for RA is _____.

forty-eight hours

four to six days

four weeks

two months

Question 7. Question :

The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be:

The kidneys

The lungs

The bile and feces

The skin

Question 8. Question :

Compelling indications for an ACE inhibitor as treatment for hypertension based on clinical trials include:

Pregnancy

Renal parenchymal disease

Stable angina

Dyslipidemia

Question 9. Question :

The American Diabetic Association has recommended which of the following tests for ongoing management of diabetes?

Fasting blood glucose

Hemoglobin A1c

Thyroid function tests

Electrocardiograms

Question 10. Question :

The angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor lisinopril is a known teratogen. Teratogens cause Type ____ ADR.

A

B

C

D

Question 11. Question :

The goals of therapy when prescribing HRT include reducing:

Cardiovascular risk

Risk of stroke or other thromboembolic event

Breast cancer risk

Vasomotor symptoms

Question 12. Question :

Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on:

Nitrates

Beta blockers

ACE inhibitors

Calcium channel blockers

Question 13. Question :

The New York Heart Association and the Canadian Cardiovascular Society have described grading criteria for levels of angina. Angina that occurs with unusually strenuous activity or on walking or climbing stair after meals is:

Class I

Class II

Class III

Class IV

Question 14. Question :

Patients with allergic rhinitis may benefit from a prescription of:

Fluticasone (Flonase)

Cetirizine (Zyrtec)

OTC cromolyn nasal spray (Nasalcrom)

Any of the above

Question 15. Question :

Kyle has Crohn’s disease and has a documented folate deficiency. Drug therapy for folate deficiency anemia is:

Oral folic acid 1 to 2 mg/day

Oral folic acid 1 gm/day

IM folate weekly for at least six months

Oral folic acid 400 mcg daily

Question 16. Question :

The treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency is:

1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin

2 gm/day of oral cobalamin

100 mcg/day vitamin B12 IM

500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week

Question 17. Question :

Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:

Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect

Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down

Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness

Must be taken no more than twice a day

Question 18. Question :

Type II diabetes is a complex disorder involving:

Absence of insulin production by the beta cells

A suboptimal response of insulin-sensitive tissues in the liver

Increased levels of GLP in the postprandial period

Too much fat uptake in the intestine

Question 19. Question :

Metformin is a primary choice of drug to treat hyperglycemia in type II diabetes because it:

Substitutes for insulin usually secreted by the pancreas

Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver

Increases the release of insulin from beta cells

Decreases peripheral glucose utilization

Question 20. Question :

Gender differences between men and women in pharmacokinetics include:

More rapid gastric emptying so that drugs absorbed in the stomach have less exposure to absorption sites

Higher proportion of body fat so that lipophilic drugs have relatively greater volumes of distribution

Increased levels of bile acids so that drugs metabolized in the intestine have higher concentrations

Slower organ blood flow rates so that drugs tend to take longer to be excreted

Question 21. Question :

If not chosen as the first drug in hypertension treatment, which drug class should be added as the second step because it will enhance the effects of most other agents?

ACE inhibitors

Beta blockers

Calcium channel blockers

Diuretics

Question 22. Question :

A nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including:

Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation

Excessive weight gain

Hypertension

Potentially fatal agranulocytosis

Question 23. Question :

Levetiracetam has known drug interactions with:

Oral contraceptives

Carbamazepine

Warfarin

Few, if any, drugs

Question 24. Question :

When the total daily insulin dose is split and given twice daily, which of the following rules may be followed?

Give two-thirds of the total dose in the morning and one-third in the evening.

Give 0.3 units/kg of premixed 70/30 insulin, with one-third in the morning and two-thirds in the evening.

Give 50% of an insulin glargine dose in the morning and 50% in the evening.

Give long-acting insulin in the morning and short-acting insulin at bedtime.

Question 25. Question :

Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?

Complexity of the drug regimen

Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs

Both A and B

Neither A nor B

Question 26. Question :

The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called:

Steady state

Half-life

Phase II metabolism

Reduced bioavailability time

Question 27. Question :

Drugs that are absolutely contraindicated in lactating women include:

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

Antiepileptic drugs such as carbamazepine

Antineoplastic drugs such as methotrexate

All of the above

Question 28. Question :

Tobie presents to clinic with moderate acne. He has been using OTC benzoyl peroxide at home with minimal improvement. A topical antibiotic (clindamycin) and a topical retinoid adapalene (Differin) are prescribed. Education of Tobie would include which one of the following instructions?

He should see an improvement in his acne within the first two weeks of treatment.

If there is no response in a week, he should double the daily application of adapalene (Differin).

He may see an initial worsening of his acne that will improve in six to eight weeks.

Adapalene may cause bleaching of clothing.

Question 29. Question :

Martin is a sixty-year-old with hypertension. The first-line decongestant to be prescribed would be:

Oral pseudoephedrine

Oral phenylephrine

Nasal oxymetazoline

Nasal azelastine

Question 30. Question :

A woman who is pregnant and has hyperthyroidism is best managed by a specialty team that will most likely treat her with:

Methimazole.

Propylthiouracil.

Radioactive iodine.

Nothing; treatment is best delayed until after her pregnancy ends.

Question 31. Question :

A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids.

A

C

E

G

Question 32. Question :

Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they:

Are more effective than first-generation antihistamines

Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines

Are prescription products and, therefore, are covered by insurance

Can be taken with CNS sedatives, such as alcohol

Question 33. Question :

Steady state is:

The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion

When the amount of drug in the body remains constant

When the amount of drug in the body stays below the minimum toxic concentration (MTC)

All of the above

Question 34. Question :

Jayla is a nine-year-old who has been diagnosed with migraines for almost two years. She is missing up to a week of school each month. Her headache diary confirms she averages four or five migraines per month. Which of the following would be appropriate?

Prescribe amitriptyline (Elavil) daily, start at a low dose and increase the dose slowly every two weeks until effective in eliminating migraines.

Encourage her mother to give her Excedrin Migraine (aspirin, acetaminophen, and caffeine) at the first sign of a headache to abort the headache.

Prescribe propranolol (Inderal) to be taken daily for at least three months.

Explain that it is rare for a nine-year-old to get migraines and that she needs an MRI to rule out a brain tumor.

Question 35. Question :

Josie is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down, and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides intravenous (IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?

Prochlorperazine (Compazine)

Meclizine (Antivert)

Promethazine (Phenergan)

Ondansetron (Zofran)

Question 36. Question :

Long-term use of PPIs may lead to:

Hip fractures in at-risk persons

Vitamin B6 deficiency

Liver cancer

All of the above

Question 37. Question :

Many patients self-medicate with antacids. Which patients should be counseled to not take calcium carbonate antacids without discussing with their providers or a pharmacist first?

Patients with kidney stones

Pregnant patients

Patients with heartburn

IN Postmenopausal women

0 of 2.5

Question 38. Question :

Beta blockers treat hypertension because they:

Reduce peripheral resistance.

Vasoconstrict coronary arteries.

Reduce norepinephrine.

Reduce angiotensin II production.

Question 39. Question :

Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include:

Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug directly to the pharmacy

Using tamper-proof papers for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs

Keeping any presigned prescription pads in a locked drawer in the clinic

Using only numbers to indicate the amount of drug to be prescribed

Question 40. Question :

The tricyclic antidepressants should be prescribed cautiously in patients with:

Eczema

Asthma

Diabetes

Heart disease

Question 41. Question :

An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?

Beta blockers

Diuretics

Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

Angiotensin II receptor blockers

Question 42. Question :

Metoclopramide improves GERD symptoms by:

Reducing acid secretion

Increasing gastric pH

Increasing lower esophageal tone

Decreasing lower esophageal tone

Question 43. Question :

Patient education regarding prescribed medication includes:

Instructions written at the high school reading level

Discussion of expected ADRs

How to store leftover medication such as antibiotics

Verbal instructions always in English

Question 44. Question :

If a patient with H. pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:

A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days

Testing H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens

A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days

A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days

Question 45. Question :

A patient with a COPD exacerbation may require:

Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose

Systemic corticosteroid burst

Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists

Leukotriene therapy

Question 46. Question :

Angela is a black woman who has heard that women of African descent do not need to worry about osteoporosis. What education would you provide Angela about her risk?

She is ; black women do not have much risk of developing osteoporosis due to their dark skin.

Black women are at risk of developing osteoporosis due to their lower calcium intake as a group.

If she doesn’t drink alcohol, her risk of developing osteoporosis is low.

If she has not lost more than 10% of her weight lately, her risk is low.

Question 47. Question :

The role of the nurse practitioner in the use of herbal medication is to:

Maintain competence in the prescribing of common herbal remedies.

Recommend common OTC herbs to patients.

Educate patients and guide them to appropriate sources of care.

Encourage patients to not use herbal therapy due to the documented dangers.

Question 48. Question :

Ray has been diagnosed with hypertension, and an ACE inhibitor is determined to be needed. Prior to prescribing this drug, the nurse practitioner should assess for:

Hypokalemia

Impotence

Decreased renal function

Inability to concentrate

Question 49. Question :

Long-acting beta-agonists received a black box warning from the US Food and Drug Administration due to the:

Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions

Increased incidence of cardiac events when long-acting beta-agonists are used

Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used

Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes

Question 50. Question :

Off-Label prescribing is:

Regulated by the FDA

Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)

Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use

Regulated by the DEA

Question 51. Question :

Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught that:

He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.

Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive.

Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.

If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes.

Question 52. Question :

Prior to starting antidepressants, patients should have laboratory testing to rule out:

IN Hypothyroidism

Anemia

Diabetes mellitus

Low estrogen levels

0 of 2.5

Question 53. Question :

What impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for infants and children?

Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months

Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion

Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing

Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not

Question 54. Question :

All diabetic patients with hyperlipidemia should be treated with:

3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase inhibitors

Fibric acid derivatives

Nicotinic acid

Colestipol

Question 55. Question :

Treatment failure in patients with PUD associated with H. pylori may be due to:

Antimicrobial resistance

Ineffective antacid

Overuse of PPIs

All of the above

Question 56. Question :

To improve positive outcomes when prescribing for the elderly, the NP should:

Assess cognitive functioning in the elder

Encourage the patient to take a weekly “drug holiday” to keep drug costs down

Encourage the patient to cut drugs in half with a knife to lower costs

All of the above options are

Question 57. Question :

Erik presents with a golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo. His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive treatment. Which medication would be the best choice for treatment?

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)

Retapamulin (Altabax)

Oral cephalexin (Keflex)

Question 58. Question :

Nonselective beta blockers and alcohol create serious drug interactions with insulin because they:

Increase blood glucose levels.

Produce unexplained diaphoresis.

Interfere with the ability of the body to metabolize glucose.

Mask the signs and symptoms of altered glucose levels.

Question 59. Question :

Infants and young children are at higher risk of ADRs due to:

Immature renal function in school-age children

Lack of safety and efficacy studies in the pediatric population

Children’s skin being thicker than adults, requiring higher dosages of topical medication

Infant boys having a higher proportion of muscle mass, leading to a higher volume of distribution

Question 60. Question :

Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:

Toxic levels of warfarin building up

Decreased response to warfarin

Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin

Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin

Question 61. Question :

Jose is a twelve-year-old overweight child with a total cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL and LDL of 125 mg/dL. Along with diet education and recommending increased physical activity, a treatment plan for Jose would include ____ with a reevaluation in six months.

statins

niacin

sterols

bile acid-binding resins

Question 62. Question :

A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?

Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.

It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production.

The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.

Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.

Question 63. Question :

Amber is a twenty-four-year-old who has had migraines for ten years. She reports a migraine on average of once a month. The migraines are effectively aborted with naratriptan (Amerge). When refilling Amber’s naratriptan education would include which of the following?

Naratriptan will interact with antidepressants, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and St John’s Wort, and she should inform any providers she sees that she has migraines.

Continue to monitor her headaches; if the migraine is consistently happening around her menses, then there is preventive therapy available.

Pregnancy is contraindicated when taking a triptan.

All the given options are correct.

Question 64. Question :

One of the main drug classes used to treat acute pain is NSAIDs. They are used due to which of the following reasons?

They have less risk for liver damage than acetaminophen.

Inflammation is a common cause of acute pain.

They have minimal GI irritation.

Regulation of blood flow to the kidney is not affected by these drugs.

Question 65. Question :

A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream to treat burns on his or her leg. Normal adverse effects of silver sulfadiazine cream include:

Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve

Worsening of burn symptoms briefly before resolution

A red, scaly rash that will resolve with continued use

Hypercalcemia

Question 66. Question :

Sulfonylureas may be added to a treatment regimen for type II diabetics when lifestyle modifications and metformin are insufficient to achieve target glucose levels. Sulfonylureas have been moved to Step 2 therapy because they:

Increase endogenous insulin secretion.

Have a significant risk for hypoglycemia.

Address the insulin resistance found in type II diabetics.

Improve insulin binding to receptors.

Question 67. Question :

Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by ______.

inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord

attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P

blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain

increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary

Question 68. Question :

Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________.

serum glucose

stool culture

folate levels

vitamin B12

Question 69. Question :

Henry presents to clinic with a significantly swollen, painful great toe and is diagnosed with gout. Of the following, which would be the best treatment for Henry?

High-dose colchicines

Low-dose colchicines

High-dose aspirin

Acetaminophen with codeine

Question 70. Question :

Jaycee has been on escitalopram (Lexapro) for a year and is willing to try tapering off of the selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors. What is the initial dosage adjustment when starting a taper off antidepressants?

Change the dose to every other day dosing for a week.

Reduce the dose by 50% for three to four days.

Reduce the dose by 50% every other day.

Escitalopram (Lexapro) can be stopped abruptly due to its long half-life.

Question 71. Question :

Christy has exercise and mild persistent asthma and is prescribed two puffs of albuterol fifteen minutes before exercise and as needed for wheezing. One puff per day of beclomethasone (Qvar) is also prescribed. Teaching regarding her inhalers includes which one of the following?

She should use one to two puffs of albuterol per day to prevent an attack, with no more than eight puffs per day.

Beclomethasone needs to be used every day to treat her asthma.

She should report any systemic side effects she is experiencing, such as weight gain.

She should use the albuterol MDI immediately after her corticosteroid MDI to facilitate bronchodilation.

Question 72. Question :

Asthma exacerbations at home are managed by the patient by:

Increasing the frequency of beta 2 agonists and contacting his or her provider

Doubling inhaled corticosteroid dose

Increasing the frequency of beta 2 agonists

Starting montelukast (Singulair)

Question 73. Question :

A woman with an intact uterus should not be prescribed:

Estrogen/progesterone combination

Intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera)

Estrogen alone

Androgens

Question 74. Question :

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy years old is:

Alendronate (Fosamax)

Ibandronate (Boniva)

Calcium carbonate

Raloxifene (Evista)

Question 75. Question :

Patient education when prescribing the vitamin D3 derivative calcipotriene for psoriasis includes:

Applying calcipotriene thickly to affected psoriatic areas two to three times a day

Applying a maximum of 100 grams of calcipotriene per week

Not using calcipotriene in combination with its topical corticosteroids

Augmenting calcipotriene with the use of coal-tar products

Question 76. Question :

Both ACE inhibitors and some angiotensin-II receptor blockers have been approved in treating:

Hypertension in diabetic patients

Diabetic nephropathy

Both A and B

Neither A nor B

Question 77. Question :

Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:

Atorvastatin (Lipitor)

Niacin (Niaspan)

Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)

Gemfibrozil (Lopid)

Question 78. Question :

Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

“Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration

Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension

Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia

Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma

Question 79. Question :

Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by:

Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded

Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient

Both A and B

Neither A nor B

Question 80. Question :

Which one of the below-given instructions can be followed for applying a topical antibiotic or antiviral ointment?

Apply thickly to the infected area, spreading the medication well past the borders of the infection

If the rash worsens, apply a thicker layer of medication to settle down the infection

Wash hands before and after application of topical antimicrobials

None of the above

Question 81. Question :

Sadie is a ninety-year-old patient who requires a new prescription. What changes in drug distribution with aging would influence prescribing for Sadie?

Increased volume of distribution

Decreased lipid solubility

Decreased plasma proteins

Increased muscle-to-fat ratio

Question 82. Question :

First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:

OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)

Oral terbinafine

Oral griseofulvin microsize

Nystatin cream or ointment

Question 83. Question :

Which of the following is true about procainamide and its dosing schedule?

It produces bradycardia and should be used cautiously in patients with cardiac conditions that a slower heart rate might worsen.

GI adverse effects are common, so the drug should be taken with food.

Adherence can be improved by using a sustained-release formulation that can be given once daily.

Doses of this drug should be taken evenly spaced around the clock to keep an even blood level.

Question 84. Question :

A nurse practitioner would prescribe the liquid form of ibuprofen for a six-year-old because:

Drugs given in liquid form are less irritating to the stomach.

A six-year-old may have problems swallowing a pill.

Liquid forms of medication eliminate the concern for first-pass effect.

Liquid ibuprofen does not have to be dosed as often as tablet form.

Question 85. Question :

Kristine would like to start HRT to treat the significant vasomotor symptoms she is experiencing during menopause. Education for a woman considering hormone replacement would include:

Explaining that HRT is totally safe if used for a short term

Telling her to ignore media hype regarding HRT

Discussing the advantages and risks of HRT

Encouraging the patient to use phytoestrogens with the HRT

Question 86. Question :

Xi, a fifty-four-year-old female, has a history of migraine that does not respond well to OTC migraine medication. She is asking to try Maxalt (rizatriptan) because it works well for her friend. Which of the following actions would you take for appropriate decision making?

Prescribe Maxalt, but to monitor the use, only give her four tablets with no refills.

Prescribe Maxalt and arrange to have her observed in the clinic or urgent care with the first dose.

Explain that rizatriptan is not used for postmenopausal migraines and recommend Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital).

Prescribe sumatriptan (Imitrex) with the explanation that it is the most effective triptan.

Question 87. Question :

The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to:

Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution

The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group

The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect

Age-related decrease in renal function

Question 88. Question :

Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes:

Miconazole cream

Ketoconazole cream

Oral griseofulvin

Mupirocin cream

Question 89. Question :

GLP-1 agonists:

Directly bind to a receptor in the pancreatic beta cell.

Have been approved for monotherapy.

Speed gastric emptying to decrease appetite.

Can be given orally once daily.

Question 90. Question :

Prophylactic use of bisphosphonates is recommended for patients with early osteopenia related to long-term use of which of the following drugs?

Selective estrogen-receptor modulators

Aspirin

Glucocorticoids

Calcium supplements

Question 91. Question :

Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:

Increasing calcitonin production

Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine

Altering calcium metabolism

Stimulating bone formation

Question 92. Question :

Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?

Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.

Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.

Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.

Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.

Question 93. Question :

Selective estrogen receptor modifiers (SERMs) treat osteoporosis by selectively:

Inhibiting magnesium resorption in the kidneys

Increasing calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract

Acting on the bone to inhibit osteoblast activity

Selectively acting on the estrogen receptors in the bone

Question 94. Question :

When a patient is on selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors:

The complete blood count must be monitored every three to four months

Therapeutic blood levels must be monitored every six months after a steady state is achieved.

Blood glucose must be monitored every three to four months.

There is no laboratory monitoring required.

Question 95. Question :

Patients whose total dose of prednisone exceed 1 gram will most likely need a second prescription for _________.

metformin, a biguanide to prevent diabetes

omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor to prevent peptic ulcer disease

naproxen, an NSAID to treat joint pain

furosemide, a diuretic to treat fluid retention

Question 96. Question :

The ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:

Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans

Annual vitamin D level

Annual renal function evaluation

Electrolytes every three months

Question 97. Question :

Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:

Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.

Potentiate the effects of the drug.

Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur.

Increase CNS depression.

Question 98. Question :

Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:

Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions

Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl

Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions

Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl

Question 99. Question :

Insulin preparations are divided into categories based on onset, duration, and intensity of action following subcutaneous inject. Which of the following insulin preparations has the shortest onset and duration of action?

Insulin lispro

Insulin glulisine

Insulin glargine

Insulin detemir

Question 100. Cynthia is taking valproate (Depakote) for seizures and would like to get pregnant. What advice would you give her?

Valproate is safe during all trimesters of pregnancy.

She can get pregnant while taking valproate, but she should take adequate folic acid.

Valproate is not safe at any time during pregnancy.

Valproate is a known teratogen but may be taken after the first trimester if necessary.

NURSING – 2025 Discussion Health Promotion During Pregnancy When caring for pregnant women it is

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NURSING – 2025

  

Discussion: Health Promotion During Pregnancy

When caring for pregnant women, it is important to care for the whole person. This means you not only manage the pregnancy and treat conditions, but you also promote healthy behaviors and good lifestyle choices. Through health promotion, you can help to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby. Your role in health promotion is to identify health risks that might result in pregnancy complications, educate patients on these risks, and provide the necessary support to help patients mitigate these risks. In this Discussion, you examine implications of drug use, alcohol consumption, dietary habits, and environmental exposures during pregnancy, and you consider ways to educate pregnant women about such risks.

To prepare:  Due 10.10.17 by 12 noon

1. Review Chapter 2 of the Tharpe et al. text and the 

2. Article from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention in this week’s  Learning Resources:

3. Consider lifestyle changes that pregnant women must make in relation to smoking. Select one of these topics to be the focus of an educational media piece you would create for health promotion during pregnancy.

· 4. Think about the patient population that you treat within your practicum setting. Consider ways to educate these patients on health promotion as it relates to the topic you selected. Then, consider the types of educational pieces, such as posters, that might be most effective with your patient population.

Post a detailed description of the educational media piece you would create for health promotion during pregnancy. Explain why you selected the particular topic (SMOKING), as well as why you selected the type of media (POSTER),  and how and why it is suitable for your patient population.

Note: Attach the POSTER to your Discussion posting before the References.

DUE ON: OCT. 17.17 by 12 noon

APA FORMAT

ZERO PLGIARISM

1&1/2 PAGE only.

:earning Resource/Required Readings/References

Schuiling, K. D., & Likis, F. E. (2017). Women’s gynecologic health (3rd ed.). Burlington, MA: Jones and Bartlett Publishers.

  • Review Chapter 30, “Diagnosis of Pregnancy and      Overview of Prenatal Care” (pp. 781-797)

This chapter examines the diagnosis of pregnancy, routine prenatal care, and patient education strategies for pregnant women.

Tharpe, N. L., Farley, C., & Jordan, R. G. (2017). Clinical practice guidelines for midwifery & women’s health (5th ed.). Burlington, MA: Jones & Bartlett Publishers.

  • Review: Chapter 2, “Care of the Woman During      Pregnancy” (pp. 49-90)

This chapter explores the care of women during pregnancy, including common health conditions and health promotion.

  • Chapter 3, “Care of the Pregnant Woman with      Prenatal Conditions” (pp. 93-154)

This chapter examines the care of women who suffer from complications during pregnancy and focuses on interventions that maximize health outcomes for the mother and baby.

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. (2011). During pregnancy. Retrieved from http://www.cdc.gov/pregnancy/during.html

This website emphasizes the need for health promotion during pregnancy. Implications of smoking, alcohol, infections, and environmental exposures are explored.

Optional Resources

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. (2012b). Women’s health. Retrieved from http://www.cdc.gov/women/

National Institutes of Health. (2012). Office of Research on Women’s Health (ORWH). Retrieved from http://orwh.od.nih.gov/

U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. (2012a). Womenshealth.gov. Retrieved from http://www.womenshealth.gov/

   

Assignment: Decision Tree – 2025 For this Assignment as you examine the client case study in this week s Learning Resources

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Assignment: Decision Tree – 2025

  

For this Assignment, as you examine the client case study in this week’s Learning Resources, consider how you might assess and treat pediatric clients presenting symptoms of a mental health disorder.

The Assignment:

Examine Case 2: You will be asked to make three decisions concerning the diagnosis and treatment for this client. Be sure to consider co-morbid physical as well as mental factors that might impact the client’s diagnosis and treatment.

At each Decision Point, stop to complete the following:

  • Decision #1: Differential Diagnosis
    • Which Decision did you select?
    • Why did you select this Decision? Support your  response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
    • What were you hoping to achieve by making this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources. 
    • Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #1 and the results of the Decision. Why were they different?
  • Decision #2: Treatment Plan for Psychotherapy
  •       Why did you select this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.    
  •       What were you hoping to achieve by making this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to  
  •       the Learning Resources. 
  •       Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #2 and the results of the Decision. Why   
  •       were they different?
  • Decision #3: Treatment Plan for Psychopharmacology
    • Why did you select this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
    • What were you hoping to achieve by making this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources. 
    • Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #3 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?
  • Also include how ethical considerations might impact   your treatment plan and communication with clients and their families.

Note: Support your rationale with a minimum of three academic resources. While you may use the course text to support your rationale, it will not count toward the resource requirement. 

                                                                  Case #2
                              Anxiety disorder, OCD, or something else? 

8-year-old black male

BACKGROUND

Tyrel is an 8-year-old black male who is brought in by his mother for a variety of psychiatric complaints. Shaquana, Tyrel’s mother, reports that Tyrel has been exhibiting a lot of worry and “nervousness” over the past 2 months. She states that she notices that he has been quite “keyed up” and spends a great deal of time worrying about “germs.” She states that he is constantly washing his hands because he feels as though he is going to get sick like he did a few weeks ago, which kept him both out of school and off the playground. He was also not able to see his father for two weekends because of being sick. Shaquana explains that although she and her ex-husband Desmond divorced about 2 years ago, their divorce was amicable and they both endeavor to see that Tyrel is well cared for. 

Shaquana reports that Tyrel is irritable at times and has also had some sleep disturbances (which she reports as “trouble staying asleep”). She reports that he has been more and more difficult to get to school as he has become nervous around his classmates. He has missed about 8 days over the course of the last 3 weeks. He has also stopped playing with his best friend from across the street. 

His mother reports that she feels “responsible” for his current symptoms. She explains that after he was sick with strep throat a few weeks ago, she encouraged him to be more careful about washing his hands after playing with other children, handling things that did not belong to him, and especially before eating. She continues by saying “maybe if I didn’t make such a big deal about it, he would not be obsessed with germs.” 

Per Shaquana, her pregnancy with Tyrel was uncomplicated, and Tyrel has met all developmental milestones on time. He has had an uneventful medical history and is current on all immunizations. 

OBJECTIVE

During your assessment of Tyrel, he seems cautious being around you. He warms a bit as you discuss school, his friends at school, and what he likes to do. He admits that he has been feeling “nervous” lately, but when you question him as to why, he simply shrugs his shoulders. 

When you discuss his handwashing with him, he tells you that “handwashing is the best way to keep from getting sick.” When you question him how many times a day he washes his hands, he again shrugs his shoulders. You can see that his bilateral hands are dry. Throughout your assessment, Tyrel reveals that he has been thinking of how dirty his hands are; and no matter how hard he tries to stop thinking about his “dirty” hands, he is unable to do so. He reports that he gets “really nervous” and “scared” that he will get sick, and that the only way to make himself feel better is to wash his hands. He reports that it does work for a while and that he feels “better” after he washes his hands, but then a little while later, he will begin thinking “did I wash my hands well enough? What if I missed an area?” He reports that he can feel himself getting more and more “scared” until he washes his hands again. 

MENTAL STATUS EXAM

Tyrel is alert and oriented to all spheres. Eye contact varies throughout the clinical interview. He reports his mood as “good,” admits to anxiety. Affect consistent to self-reported mood. He denies visual/auditory hallucinations. No overt delusional or paranoid thought processes were apparent. He denies suicidal ideation. 

Lab studies obtained from Tyrel’s pediatric nurse practitioner were all within normal parameters. An antistreptolysin O antibody titer was obtained for reasons you are unclear of, and this titer was shown to be above normal parameters. 

                                                         Decision Point One

BASED ON THE INFORMATION PROVIDED IN THE SCENARIO ABOVE, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DIAGNOSES WOULD THE PMHNP GIVE TO TYREL?

In your write-up of this case, be certain to link specific symptoms presented in the case to DSM–5 criteria to support your diagnosis.

 

                                 Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

                                 Obsessive Compulsive Disorder

                                 Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections (“PANDAS”)

 ANSWER CHOSEN: Obsessive Compulsive Disorder 

                                                               Decision Point Two

BASED ON THE ABOVE IN FORMATION, SELECT YOUR NEXT ACTION. BE CERTAIN TO DISCUSS THE RATIONALE FOR YOUR DECISION.

     

https://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/NURS/6660/05/mm/decision_tree/img/pill-red.pngBegin Zoloft 50 mg orally daily

https://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/NURS/6660/05/mm/decision_tree/img/pill-blue.pngBegin Fluvoxamine immediate release 25 mg orally at bedtime

https://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/NURS/6660/05/mm/decision_tree/img/pill-yellow.pngBegin Fluvoxamine controlled release 100 mg orally in the morning

  

ANSWER CHOSENhttps://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/NURS/6660/05/mm/decision_tree/img/pill-blue.pngBegin Fluvoxamine immediate release 25  

                                                  mg orally at bedtime 

    

         RESULTS OF DECISION POINT TWO

·  Client returns to clinic in four weeks

· Upon return to the clinic, Tyrel’s mother reported that he has had some  

  decrease in his symptoms. She states that the frequency of the handwashing 

  has decreased, and Tyrel seems a bit more “relaxed” overall.

·  She also reports that Tyrel has not fully embraced returning to school, but that  

  his attendance has improved. She reported that over this past weekend, Tyrel    

  went outside to play with his friend from across the street, which he has not  

 done in a while.

 

                                                          Decision Point Three

BASED ON THE ABOVE INFORMATION, SELECT YOUR NEXT ACTION. BE CERTAIN TO DISCUSS THE RATIONALE FOR YOUR DECISION.

  

https://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/NURS/6660/05/mm/decision_tree/img/pill-red.pngIncrease Fluvoxamine to 50 mg orally at bedtime

https://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/NURS/6660/05/mm/decision_tree/img/pill-blue.pngAugment with an atypical antipsychotic such as Abilify

https://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/NURS/6660/05/mm/decision_tree/img/pill-yellow.pngAugment treatment with cognitive behavioral therapy

ANSWER CHOSEN:  https://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/NURS/6660/05/mm/decision_tree/img/pill-red.pngIncrease Fluvoxamine to 50 mg orally at 

                                                     bedtime

Guidance to Student 

In terms of an actual diagnosis, the child’s main symptoms are most consistent with obsessive-compulsive disorder. There may also be an element of social phobia developing, but at this point, the PMHNP has not assessed the nature of the school avoidance—that is, why is the child avoiding school. Notice that nothing in the scenario tells us that the PMHNP has assessed this.

Fluvoxamine immediate release is FDA-approved for the treatment of OCD in children aged 8 years and older. Fluvoxamine’s sigma-1 antagonist properties may cause sedation and as such, it should be dosed in the evening/bedtime.

At this point, it would be appropriate to consider increasing the bedtime dose, especially since the child is responding to the medication and there are no negative side effects.

Atypical antipsychotics are typically not used in the treatment of OCD. There is also nothing to tell us that an atypical antipsychotic would be necessary (e.g., no psychotic symptoms). Additionally, the child seems to be responding to the medication, so there is no rationale as to why an atypical antipsychotic would be added to the current regimen.

Cognitive behavioral therapy is the psychotherapy of choice for treating OCD. The PMHNP should augment medication therapy with CBT. If further assessment determines that Tyrel has social anxiety disorder, CBT is effective in treating this condition as well.

Learning Resources

Required Readings

Sadock, B. J., Sadock, V. A., & Ruiz, P. (2014). Kaplan & Sadock’s synopsis of psychiatry: Behavioral sciences/clinical psychiatry (11th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer.  Chapter      31, “Child Psychiatry” (pp. 1253–1268)

American Psychiatric Association. (2013). Diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author  “Anxiety Disorders”

American Academy of Child & Adolescent Psychiatry (AACAP). (2012a). Practice parameter for the assessment and treatment of children and adolescents with obsessive-compulsive disorder. Journal of the American Academy of Child & Adolescent Psychiatry, 51(1), 98–113. Retrieved from http://www.jaacap.com/article/S0890-8567(11)00882-3/pdf 

McClelland, M., Crombez, M-M., Crombez, C., Wenz, C., Lisius, M., Mattia, A., & Marku, S. (2015). Implications for advanced practice nurses when pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections (PANDAS) is suspected: A qualitative study. Journal of Pediatric Health Care, 29(5), 442–452. doi:10.1016/j.pedhc.2015.03.005

Stahl, S. M. (2014). Prescriber’s Guide: Stahl’s Essential Psychopharmacology (5th ed.). New York, NY: Cambridge University Press. 

To access information on the following medications, click on The Prescriber’s Guide, 5th Ed. tab on the Stahl Online website and select the appropriate medication.

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