A 78-year old woman is admitted to a Medical unit directly from her physician’s office for evaluation and management of congestive heart failure. She has a history of systemic hypertension.

The initial assessment completed by the RN of the assigned patient reveals a pulse rate that is rapid and very irregular. The patient is restless, her skin is pale and cool, she states she is dizzy when she stands up and she is slightly short of breath and anxious. Her BP is 106/88. Her ECG monitor pattern shows uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a heart rate ranging from 150 -170 beats/min. Her respirations are 20/min and her O2 saturation is 90%.

1. Given the findings, what should be the first action of      the practical nurse?
2. What additional data would the practical nurse collect?
3. Discuss the potential complications of cardioversion  and patient preparation for an elective cardioversion. Because the length      of time the patient has been in atrial fibrillation is unknown, what      adverse reaction may occur?

Later that evening the patient calls the nurse because she feels “like something terrible is going to happen.” She reports chest pain, has increased shortness of breath, and has coughed up blood-tinged sputum.

1. Based on these symptoms, what might you suspect is      happening?
2. What is the first thing the practical nurse should do      and what further information would you expect to be collected?

Course Project Milestone 3 Guidelines and Grading Rubric

Updated 01/2019

Purpose

To apply lessons in quality improvement in nursing to a real-world nursing issue. This Course Project will use the Six Sigma DMAIC process.

Course Outcomes

The Course Project enables the student to meet the following Course Outcomes (COs):

· CO1: Identify the role of the BSN nurse in the quality improvement process as a member of the collaborative interprofessional team. (POs 2 and 7)

· CO2: Discuss effective processes and strategies to improve quality in nursing. (POs 2 and 8)

Points

The entire project is worth 600 points. Milestone 3 is worth 225 points of this total.

Due Date

Submit your completed NR392 Milestone 3 by Sunday, 11:59 p.m. MT, end of Week 6.

Requirements and Guidelines

1. Download the required Milestone 3 Template (Links to an external site.).

2. Save it to your computer in Microsoft Word 2013 (or later) as a .docx file with the file name: Your Last Name NR392 Milestone 3.docx.

3. Milestone 3 is a continuation of and builds upon Milestones 1 and 2. Review the grading criteria and grading rubric for details about requirements.

4. A peer-reviewed scholarly professional nursing journal article (not a website) that is appropriate to the nursing care issue must be obtained from CINAHL via the Chamberlain Online Library and must be available in full text. Provide the required information about the article in the template. You will write a short summary of this article.

5. Carefully review the assigned areas for Milestone 3 and type directly in your saved required Milestone 3 Template.

6. Watch the video for a detailed overview of the requirements of Milestone 3.

1. Submit your completed Milestone 3 Template by Sunday, end of Week 6.

**Academic Integrity Reminder**

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By submitting this assignment, I pledge on my honor that all content contained is my own original work except as quoted and cited appropriately. I have not received any unauthorized assistance on this assignment. 

Please see the grading criteria and rubrics on this page.

NOTE: Please use your browser’s File setting to save or print this page.

 

Question 1 (5 points)

Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?

Question 1 options:

Lysosomes

Peroxisomes

Ribosomes

Oxyhydrosomes

Question 2 (5 points)

What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?

Question 2 options:

Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.

Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.

Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.

Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.

Question 3 (5 points)

Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?

Question 3 options:

Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.

Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.

Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.

Question 4 (5 points)

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

Question 4 options:

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.

The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane

Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.

Question 5 (5 points)

What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?

Question 5 options:

Respiratory distress

Sun intolerance

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations

Death(not confirm)

Question 6 (5 points)

Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:

Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2

Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.

The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.

The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.

The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.

Question 7 (5 points)

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?

Question 7 options:

a)Oncotic pressure

b)Buffering

c)Net filtration

d)Hydrostatic pressure

Question 8 (5 points)
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?

Question 8 options:

a)Capillary hydrostatic

b)Interstitial hydrostatic

c)Capillary oncotic

d)Interstitial oncotic

Question 9 (5 points)

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:

Question 9 options:

a)The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

b)The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

c)The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

d)The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

Question 10 (5 points)

It is true that natriuretic peptides:

Question 10 options:

a)Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.

b)Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.

c)Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.

d)Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.

Question 11 (5 points)

What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?

Question 11 options:

a)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.

b)High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.

c)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.

d)High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.

Question 12 (5 points)

A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:

Question 12 options:

a)Intracellular and extracellular Na+

b)Intracellular and extracellular K+

c)Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+

d)Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+

Question 13 (5 points)

In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?

Question 13 options:

a)Hypopolarization

b)Hyperexcitability

c)Depolarization

d)Repolarization

Question 14 (5 points)

Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:

Question 14 options:

a)20:1

b)1:20

c)10:2

d)10:5

Question 15 (5 points)

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:

Question 15 options:

a)Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin

b)Inflammation resulting from an immune response

c)Blockage within the lymphatic channel system

d)Sodium and water retention

Question 16 (5 points)

Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:

Question 16 options:

a)A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development

b)Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair

c)An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant

d)Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis

Question 17 (5 points)

The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:

Question 17 options:

a)Are antigen-presenting molecules

b)Bind antigens to antibodies

c)Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process

d)Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Question 18 (5 points)

The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:

Question 18 options:

a)Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell

b)Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate

c)Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte

d)Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus

Question 19 (5 points)

The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:

Question 19 options:

a)Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors

b)Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells

c)Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs

d)Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations

Save

Question 20 (5 points)

Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:

Question 20 options:

a)Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)

b)Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)

d)Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)

Question 21 (5 points)

What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 21 options:

a)Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.

b)Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.

c)Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.

d)Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.

Question 22 (5 points)

When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:

Question 22 options:

a)Complement-mediated cell lysis

b)Phagocytosis by macrophages

c)Phagocytosis in the spleen

d)Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products

Question 23 (5 points)

Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:

Question 23 options:

a)Endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus

b)Exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus

c)Immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus

d)Cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus

Question 24 (5 points)

Vaccines against viruses are created from:

Question 24 options:

a)Killed organisms or extracts of antigens

b)Live organisms weakened to produce antigens

c)Purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified

d)Recombinant pathogenic protein

Question 25 (5 points)

Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?

Question 25 options:

a)Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.

b)Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.

c)Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells

d)Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.

Question 26 (5 points)

Two “hits” are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:

Question 26 options:

a)Each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.

b)The first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.

c)Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis.

d)The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.

Question 27 (5 points)

What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy?

Question 27 options:

a)Infection

b)Ultraviolet damage

c)Pain

d)Erythema

Question 28 (5 points)

When a child is diagnosed with cancer, which intervention has the greatest influence on the child’s mortality rate?

Question 28 options:

a)Age at the time of diagnosis

b)Participation in clinical trials

c)Proximity to a major cancer treatment center

d)Parental involvement in the treatment planning

Question 29 (5 points)

Reflex activities concerned with the heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?

Question 29 options:

a)Pons

b)Midbrain

c)Cerebellum

d)Medulla oblongata

Question 30 (5 points)

The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome?

Question 30 options:

a)Hypovolemic shock from blood lost during the injury

b)Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm

c)Head injury that likely occurred during the injury

d)Spinal shock immediately after the injury

Question 31 (5 points)

What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?

Question 31 options:

a)Craniosacral dysreflexia

b)Parasympathetic dysreflexia

c)Autonomic hyperreflexia

d)Retrograde hyperreflexia

Save

Question 32 (5 points)

Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:

Question 32 options:

a)In larger veins

b)Near capillary sphincters

c)At branches of arteries

d)On the venous sinuses

Question 33 (5 points)

Multiple sclerosis is best described as:

Question 33 options:

a)A CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus

b)Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder

c)The depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus

d)A degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors

Question 34 (5 points)

Graves disease develops from:

Question 34 options:

a)A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone

b)An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue

c)Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

d)Ingestion of goitrogens, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter

Question 35 (5 points)

Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:

Question 35 options:

a)High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins

b)Diminished levels of TRH

c)High levels of TSH

d)Diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin

Question 36 (5 points)

A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum potassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient
reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?

Question 36 options:

a)Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.

b)Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresi

c)Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.

d)Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.

Question 37 (5 points)

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as:

Question 37 options:

a)Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues

b)The need for lispro instead of regular insulin

c)An increase in glucagon secretion from α cells of the pancreas

d)The presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy β cells in the pancreas

Question 38 (5 points)

The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?

Question 38 options:

a)Immunoglobulin E (IgE)

b)Immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)Immunoglobulin M (IgM)

d)T cells

Question 39 (5 points)

A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

Question 39 options:

a)Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration

b)The dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime

c)Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

d)Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity

Question 40 (5 points)

Hypoglycemia, followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with:

Question 40 options:

a)The Somogyi effect

b)The dawn phenomenon

c)Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

d)Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome

Question 41 (5 points)

Which structure is lined with columnar epithelial cells

Question 41 options:

a)Perimetrium

b)Endocervical canal

c)Myometrium

d)Vagina

Question 42 (5 points)

Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?

Question 42 options:

a)Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina

b)Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus

c)Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus

d)Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina

Question 43 (5 points)

Which statement best describes a Schilling test?

Question 43 options:

a)Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency

b)Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia

c)Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia

d)Administration of folate and measurement in two hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia

Question 44 (5 points)

In aplastic anemia (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following?

Question 44 options:

a)Suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes

b)Suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes

c)Lack of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) to form sufficient quantities of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes

d)Lack of stem cells to form sufficient quantities of leukocytes

Question 45 (5 points)

Which statement is true regarding warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

Question 45 options:

a)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in men.

b)It is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis.

c)Erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen.

d)Immunoglobulin M (IgM) coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes.

Question 46 (5 points)

Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother:

Question 46 options:

a)Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative

b)Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive

c)Has type A blood and the fetus has type O blood

d)Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B blood

Question 47 (5 points)

When diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), why does the newborn develop hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero?

Question 47 options:

a)Excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother’s circulation is no longer possible.

b)Hemoglobin does not break down into bilirubin in the intrauterine environment.

c)The liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble form to a water-soluble form.

d)The destruction of erythrocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth.

Question 48 (5 points)

How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?

Question 48 options:

a)By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction

b)By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia

c)By reducing the contractility of the myocardium

Question 49 (5 points)

What event is a characteristic of the function in Zone I of the lung?

Question 49 options:

a)Blood flow through the pulmonary capillary bed increases in regular increments.

b)Alveolar pressure is greater than venous pressure but not greater than arterial pressure.

c)The capillary bed collapses, and normal blood flow ceases.

d)Blood flows through Zone I, but it is impeded to a certain extent by alveolar pressure.

Question 50 (5 points)

What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily?

Question 50 options:

a)Vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption

b)Bone marrow function depression

c)Iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias

  

1-According to Helmenstine (2018), an independent variable is the variable that is changed or controlled in a scientific experiment to test the effects on the dependent variable & a dependent variable is the variable being tested and measured in a scientific experiment. For my project on fall prevention in the LTC setting, the independent variables will be; the type of medication given to patients, environment that the patients live, physical exercise, level of stress and body strength of the patients. Their age, gender,fall prevention measures during handoff and not allowing patients to dangle on the edge of the bed, use of sitters. The dependent variables would be the fall rates for the month of June and July and staff knowledge on fall prevention,the condition of patients after receiving anti-psychotic medication, the nature of body strength of patients and patient satisfaction . I am measuring the amount of falls and knowledge gained since they depend on the new measures in place. It is important to pay attention to both of these variables to make sure they are realistic and achievable. Knowing results helps me determine if my solutions are effective.

Reference

Helmenstine, T. (2018). What Is the Difference Between Independent and Dependent Variables? Retrieved from https://www.thoughtco.com/independent-and-dependent-variables-differences-606115

 

 
 

2-Independent variable is the implementation of the new SBAR trauma transfer audit/form. The subjective feedback from staff and the statistical patient outcomes would be the dependent variables. It is important to look at the results of the new plan and to see what is proven effective and what is not. It could also be beneficial to do a study before implementation to have nurses rate the communication on a scale 1-5 with recieving and transferring facilities and then one after implementation to look at the effectiveness of the new SBAR trauma transfer audit/form.

 

 

3-The independent and dependent variables may be viewed in terms of cause and effect. If the independent variable is changed, then an effect is seen in the dependent variable. Remember, the values of both variables may change in an experiment and are recorded. The difference is that the value of the independent variable is controlled by the experimenter, while the value of the dependent variable only changes in response to the independent variable.

This helped me better understand when looking at more of a cause and effect relationship. So, are you comparing the use of xarelto in stroke patients in contrast to those that don’t use xarelto?

Dodge, Y. (2003) The Oxford Dictionary of Statistical Terms, OUP. ISBN 0-19-920613-9

 

 

1.  You have version A of the exam. Please mark A for question 1.

2.  Which of the following is an important reason to consume insoluble fiber?

a.    It provides digestible energy.

b.    It provides a source of energy for intestinal bacteria in humans.

c.    It facilitates the removal of solid waste by providing bulk.

d.    It inhibits the passage of stool.

e.    It supplies many water-soluble vitamins.

3.  If an individual receives federal nutrition assistance and nutrition education, and lives near a grocery store, why might he/she still suffer from food insecurity?

a.    Instability in economic or environmental climate

b.    Lack of food availability

c.    Lack of resource access

d.    Lack of utilization knowledge

e.    All of the above factors are resulting in food insecurity.

4.  Why do white breads contain minimal fiber?

a.    The process of refinement removes the bran, which contains most of a grain’s fiber.

b.    The process of refinement removes the endosperm, which contains most of a grain’s fiber.

c.    Gluten inhibits the bioavailability of fiber.

d.    Grains are poor sources of fiber.

e.    Wheat is a poor source of fiber.

5.  Which of the following is NOT a result of glucagon release?

a.    Increased blood glucose concentration

b.    Decreased blood glucose concentration

c.    Increased rate of glycogenolysis

d.    Increased rate of gluconeogenesis

e.    Increased release of glucose from liver

6.  Which of the following pieces of information MUST appear on labels of dietary supplements?

a.    Structure-function claims

b.    Nutrient content claims

c.    Disease prevention claims

d.    Disease treatment claims

e.    Suggested daily dose

7.  Why is it important to avoid consuming dietary supplements with mega-doses of micronutrients?

a.    They may exceed the Tolerable Upper Intake Level and pose risks of toxicity.

b.    They are more expensive than supplements with lower doses.

c.    They are less effective than supplements with lower doses.

d.    They are not absorbed as well as supplements with lower doses.

e.    They will be readily excreted if consumed in excess of the body’s need.

8.  Which of the following is a/are modifiable risk factor(s) for type 2 diabetes mellitus?

a.    Age greater than 45 years

b.    Family history

c.    Non-Caucasian ethnicity

d.    Low HDL

e.    All of the above are modifiable risk factors.

9.  Which of the following substances helps with digestion and absorption by emulsifying fats?

a.    Salivary amylase

b.    Hydrochloric acid

c.    Bile acids

d.    Pepsin

e.    Trypsin

10.  All of the following are functions of cholesterol EXCEPT:

a.    Precursor to bile salt

b.    Structure of cell membranes

c.    Precursor to hormones

d.    Precursor to vitamin D

e.    Energy source

11.  Heme iron is more ______ than nonheme iron. This means that a higher percentage of heme iron can be absorbed and used by the body.

a.    Competitive

b.    Bioavailable

c.    Essential

d.    Energy efficient

e.    None of the above

12.  All of the following are trace minerals EXCEPT:

a.    Iron

b.    Copper

c.    Calcium

d.    Selenium

e.    Zinc

13.  Which of the following is NOT a function of lipids in the body?

a.    Facilitate absorption of some vitamins

b.    Comprise cell membranes

c.    Store energy in adipose tissue

d.    Provide energy during fasting

e.    Provide energy during short, intense exercise

14.  Which of the following polysaccharides is not digestible?

a.    Glycogen

b.    Fiber

c.    Glucose

d.    Starch

e.    Amylase

15.  ______ blood levels of calcium cause the release of parathyroid hormone, which ______

intestinal absorption of calcium.

a.    High; stimulates

b.    Low; increases

c.    High; decreases

d.    Low; decreases

e.    Moderate; halts

16.  Which of the following is a critical function of water-soluble vitamins?

a.    Promote blood clotting

b.    Act as coenzymes to facilitate chemical reactions

c.    Act as hormones to promote bone formation

d.    Yield energy

e.    All of the above

17.  Which monosaccharides are released and absorbed after digesting milk?

a.    Sucrose, maltose, and lactose

b.    Glucose

c.    Glucose and fructose

d.    Glucose and galactose

e.    Lactose itself is a monosaccharide.

18.  Which of the following statements about triglycerides is true?

a.    They are the most abundant form of lipid in food and the body’s energy stores.

b.    They are components of cell membranes.

c.    They cannot be broken down to release free fatty acids.

d.    They always contain trans bonds.

e.    They always contain double bonds.

19.  Which of the following statements regarding niacin deficiency is true?

a.    It is associated with diets low in fruits and vegetables.

b.    It is associated with corn (maize)-based diets.

c.    It cannot be supplemented with fortified or enriched foods.

d.    It is never fatal.

e.    It may result in beri-beri.

20.  What is the relationship between vitamin B6 and amino acids?

a.    It can be produced from certain essential amino acids.

b.    It can be produced from certain non-essential amino acids.

c.    It facilitates transamination to produce non-essential amino acids.

d.    It prevents the production of neurotransmitters from amino acids.

e.    It is not involved in amino acid synthesis.

21.  Which of the following is/are (a) symptom(s) of toxicity from excessive intake of iron supplements?

a.    Constipation

b.    Nausea

c.    Anemia

d.    Both a and b

e.    All of the above

22.  Although necessary for survival, too many ______ in the diet can lead to high levels of inflammation and high blood pressure.

a.    Trans fatty acids

b.    Omega-6 fatty acids

c.    Omega-3 fatty acids

d.    Essential amino acids

e.    None of the above

23.  The function of ______ is to transport lipids and cholesterol in the blood.

a.    Hemoglobin

b.    Lipoproteins

c.    The liver

d.    Antibodies

e.    The pancreas

24.  Which of the following is NOT a key function of calcium?

a.    Regulate blood pressure

b.    Facilitate muscle contraction

c.    Regulate enzyme activity

d.    Promote blood clotting

e.    All of the above are true

25.  Which of the following statements regarding type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) and type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) is FALSE?

a.    T1DM accounts for most (about 95% of) cases in the U.S.

b.    T1DM results from impaired insulin production.

c.    T2DM can be controlled or reversed with diet and exercise.

d.    T2DM results from insulin resistance and an impaired ability of cells to remove glucose from the blood.

e.    T1DM was historically called “juvenile-onset diabetes,” while T2DM was historically called “adult-onset diabetes.”

26.  Secretion of parathyroid hormone may increase absorption, release, or synthesis of which of the following?

a.    Calcium

b.    Vitamin D

c.    Phosphorus

d.    Both a and c

e.    All of the above

27.  All of the following are functions of phosphorus EXCEPT:

a.    Component of phospholipids

b.    Bone mineralization

c.    Component of energy transfer molecule

d.    Protein modification

e.    Carrying oxygen in the blood

28.  Too much iron can lead to:

a.    Free radical-mediated damage

b.    Increased susceptibility to infection

c.    Increased risk of heart disease

d.    Both a and b

e.    All of the above

29.  Omega 3 fatty acids are beneficial because they raise ______ levels in the blood and decrease ______ levels.

a.    Triglyceride; HDL

b.    LDL; triglyceride

c.    HDL; LDL

d.    LDL; protein

e.    HDL; hemoglobin

30.  Which of the following is/are (a) function(s) of thiamin?

a.    Help metabolize carbohydrates

b.    Help metabolize some amino acids

c.    Help synthesize DNA and RNA

d.    Both b and c

e.    All of the above

31.  What is the role of vitamin C in iron absorption?

a.    It reduces non-heme iron to enhance its absorption.

b.    It oxidizes non-heme iron to enhance its absorption.

c.    It binds to iron to prevent absorption.

d.    It reduces heme iron to enhance absorption.

e.    It oxidizes heme iron to enhance its absorption.

32.  Which of the following is a reason why someone’s body might produce ketones?

a.    The diet lacks a source of carbohydrates to yield glucose.

b.    The diet lacks a source of fat to yield acetyl CoA.

c.    An obese person is not able to efficiently metabolize glucose, and instead relies on ketone bodies.

d.    Ketone bodies are necessary components of the citric acid cycle.

e.    Producing ketone bodies can spare fatty acids from being metabolized.

33.  Which of the following is NOT a dietary factor that increases risk of cardiovascular disease?

a.    Excess sugar

b.    Excess calories

c.    Trans fat

d.    Moderate alcohol

e.    Sodium

34.  Which of the following functions does NOT involve a prominent role for copper?

a.    Iron metabolism

b.    Connective tissue synthesis

c.    Immune system

d.    Maintenance of heart muscle

e.    Hemochromatosis

35.  Which of the following is a disaccharide?

a.    Starch

b.    Sucrose

c.    Fiber

d.    Glycogen

e.    Fructose

36.  In order to derive energy from glucose, what must happen after glycolysis yields pyruvate?

a.    It must be converted to acetyl CoA to enter the electron transport chain.

b.    It must be converted to acetyl CoA to enter the citric acid cycle.

c.    It must be stored as glycogen.

d.    It must be converted to a triglyceride.

e.    It must be used to break down triglycerides.

37.  Which of the following statements about water-soluble vitamins is FALSE?

a.    The excess amount will be excreted through the urine.

b.    High doses can potentially be toxic.

c.    The human body stores them in tissues such as adipose.

d.    The human body can’t store excess amounts.

e.    The human body can only use a certain amount of these vitamins at a time.

38.  If you have an essential fatty acid deficiency, which of the following might be compromised?

a.    Growth

b.    Skin integrity

c.    Fertility

d.    Structure and function of cell membranes

e.    All of the above

39.  Which of the following foods likely has the lowest glycemic index?

a.    Whole orange

b.    Orange juice

c.    Orange candy

d.    Orange soda

e.    All of the above items have the same glycemic indices.

40.  Which of the following characterizes vitamin C deficiency?

a.    Diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia, death

b.    Microcytic anemia, encephalopathy

c.    Bleeding gums, slow wound healing, poor appetite

d.    Numbness, fatigue

e.    None of the above

41.  Which micronutrient(s) is/are important for blood formation?

a.    Iron

b.    Vitamin B12

c.    Vitamin C

d.    Both a and b

e.    All of the above

42.  Which of the following characteristics of dietary supplements is/are regulated by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) after they are on the market?

a.    Safety

b.    Advertising

c.    Ingredient accuracy

d.    Both a and c

e.    All of the above

43.  Hydrogenation is the addition of ______ atoms to ______ fats to make them more solid and shelf-stable at room temperature.

a.    Carbon; saturated

b.    Hydrogen; saturated

c.    Carbon; unsaturated

d.    Hydrogen; unsaturated

e.    Oxygen; saturated

44.  Research in the 1970s suggested that consuming saturated fat and cholesterol in the diet led to increased rates of cardiovascular disease. This led the food industry to replace saturated fat with ______.

a.    Trans fat

b.    Fiber

c.    Monounsaturated fat

d.    Essential amino acids

e.    Protein

45.  What is the storage form of fat found in adipose tissue?

a.    Chylomicrons

b.    Triglycerides

c.    Cholesterol

d.    VLDL

e.    Phospholipids

46.  Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of osteoporosis?

a.    Increased risk for active individuals

b.    Increased risk for males

c.    Increased bone density

d.    Increased calcification of bone

e.    Reduced calcium and bone matrix

47.  Folate or folic acid supplementation is especially important for women during pregnancy in order to prevent ______.

a.    Scurvy

b.    Rickets

c.    Pellagra

d.    Neural tube defects

e.    Pneumonia

48.  ______ is/are necessary to prevent megaloblastic (macrocytic) anemia.

a.    Folate

b.    Niacin

c.    Vitamin B12

d.    Vitamin C

e.    Both a and c

49.  Which of the following statements about trace minerals is FALSE?

a.    They are often cofactors to enzymes.

b.    They are important for DNA synthesis.

c.    They do not directly provide energy.

d.    They are not essential in the diet.

e.    They can compete with each other for absorption.

50.  Which of the following federal nutrition programs provides the greatest flexibility in what foods may be purchased and consumed by recipients?

a.    Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)

b.    Special Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC)

c.    National School Lunch Program (NSLP)

d.    Both a and b allow equivalent purchases.

e.    All of the above allow equivalent foods.